Comment Form - v1

This is an English language test meant for applications from non-native English-speaking countries to study or work abroad. It is graded on a scale of 1-9. Most of the countries such as the UK, Australia, New Zealand, USA, and Canada accept these scores. The four categories of this test include the ability to listen, write, read and speak English. A score of 5.5 to 6.5 is considered average. The minimum passing scores required to study abroad are:

**The USA – 6.0** 
The popular universities of the USA accepting IELTS scores include 
- Massachusetts Institute of Technology (7.0)
- Harvard University (7.0)
- Princeton University (7.0)
- Los Angeles (7.0)
- [University of Michigan] (7.0)
- The University of Texas at Austin (6.5)
- Brown University (8.0)
- Purdue University (6.5)
- Boston University (7.0)

**The UK – 6.0** 
British universities accepting IELTS scores include 
- University of Cambridge (7.0)
- University of Oxford (7.0)
- Imperial College London (7.0)
- University of Edinburgh (6.5)
- King's College London (7.0)
- University of Warwick (6.5)

**Germany – 6.0** 
IELTS scores accepted by German universities include 
- Technical University of Munich (6.5)
- RWTH Aachen University (6.5)
- Ludwig Maximilians University Munich (5.5)
- Humboldt University of Berlin (6.5)
- Free University of Berlin (6.5)

**Canada – 6.0** 
IELTS scores accepted by Canadian universities are the 
- University of Toronto (6.5)
- University of British Columbia (6.5)
- McGill University (6.5)
- University of Alberta (6.5)


**Australia – 6.5** 
IELTS scores accepted by Australian universities include 
- Victoria University (6)
- Bond University (6.5)
- University of Canberra (6.5)
- Monash University (6.5)
- University of Queensland (6.5)
- University of Western Australia (6.5)

IELTS: International English Language Testing System 

While IELTS is partially paper-oriented, the TOEFL test is fully online. However, instead of being a 2 hours and 45 minutes test like IELTS, the TOEFL is of 4 hours, including the same four categories of examination. For the most student-friendly category of examination (the internet-based), the scoring scale is from 0 to 120, wherein a score of 78 is considered average. The minimum passing scores required to study abroad are:


**The USA – 90-100**

The popular universities of the USA accepting TOEFL scores include 
- Massachusetts Institute of Technology (90)
- Harvard University (100-110)
- Princeton University (100)
- The University of California, Los Angeles (80-100)
- University of Michigan (88-100)
- The University of Texas at Austin (79 and above)
- Brown University (100 and above)
- Yale University (100)
- Cornell University (100)

**The UK – 88-100**

British universities accepting TOEFL scores include 
- University of Cambridge (100)
- University of Oxford (100)
- University of Edinburgh (100)
- King's College London (72 and above)
- University of Warwick (92)

**Germany – 80-100**

TOEFL scores accepted by German universities include
-  Technical University of Munich (88)
- RWTH Aachen University (90)
- Ludwig Maximilians University Munich (80)
- Humboldt University of Berlin (79)
- Heidelberg University (90)

**Canada – 90**

TOEFL scores accepted by Canadian universities are 
- University of Toronto (89-100)
- University of British Columbia (90)
- McGill University (79-100)
- University of Alberta (90)

**Australia – 80-100**

TOEFL scores accepted by Australian universities include
- University of Melbourne (79)
- RMIT University (79)
- University of Sydney (85)
- Monash University (79)
- University of Queensland (87)


TOEFL: Test of English as a Foreign Language

The GRE is taken by aspirants who want to pursue their higher education forward through degrees such as master's, specialized master's in business, MBA, JD or doctoral degree, Ph.D., etc. The test includes verbal reasoning, quantitative reasoning, and analytical writing skills. The duration is 3 hours and 45 minutes. The maximum score is **340 it ranges from 260-340**, defining oscillatory scores for each of the 3 categories for the exam such as **Quantitative Reasoning (130-170)**, **Verbal Reasoning (130-170)**, and **Analytical Writing Skills (0-6, half-increment method)**. A score of 300 is considered good. The minimum passing scores required to study abroad are:


**The USA – 300-325**

The popular universities of the USA accepting GRE scores include 
- Massachusetts Institute of Technology [310)
- Harvard University (292-316)
- Princeton University (324)
- University of Chicago (320)
- San Diego (UCSD) (300-320)
- Stanford University (317)
- Brown University (Min. 320)
- University of Wisconsin-Madison (310 and above)
- Cornell University (320)

**The UK – 310-330**

British universities accepting GRE scores include  
- University of Oxford (320 and above)
- London School of Economics (326)
- Imperial College, London (327)

**Germany – 315-320**

GRE scores accepted by German universities include 
- Technical University of Munich (Quant: 157; AW: 3.5)
- RWTH Aachen University (Verbal: 145; Quant: 160; AW: 3)
- Ludwig Maximilians University Munich (Quant: 80th percentile)


**Canada – 305-315**

GRE scores accepted by Canadian universities are 
- University of Toronto (167+ in Quant and Verb)
- University of British Columbia (307)
- McGill University (321)
- University of Alberta (307)

**Australia – 300-315**

GRE scores accepted by Australian universities include
- The University of Melbourne (305)
- RMIT University (305)
- University of Sydney (305)
- Monash University (305)
- University of Queensland (complete GRE with a minimum score of 0)





GRE: Graduate Record Examinations

As the name suggests, this test is for graduate aspirants who wish to pursue management studies and business studies abroad. It has four sections: Analytical Writing Assessment, Integrated Reasoning, Quantitative and Verbal. The scoring ranges from 200 to 800. The average accepted score is between 400 and 600. The minimum passing scores required to study abroad are:

**The USA – 650-750**

The popular universities of the USA accepting GRE scores include 
- The University of Pennsylvania (732)
- Harvard University (730)
- New York University (730)
- University of Chicago (730)
- Yale University (720)
- Stanford University (733)
- Dartmouth College(720)
- University of California—Los Angeles (719)
- University of California—Berkeley (HAAS) (725)

**The UK – 600-710**

British universities accepting GRE scores include 
- London Business School (701)
- Durham University Business School (600 and above)
- Cambridge Judge Business School of the University of Cambridge (690)
- Saïd Business School of the University of Oxford (690)
- Warwick Business School of the University of Warwick (660)

**Germany – 550 and above**

GRE scores accepted by German universities include 
- Frankfurt School of Finance and Management (640)
- WHU-Otto Beisheim Graduate School of Management (600 and above)
- Business School Pforzheim (550 and above)

**Canada – 550-700**

GRE scores accepted by Canadian universities are 
- University of Toronto (550 and above)
- Columbia (550 and above)
- McGill University (570)
- The University of Alberta (550)
- Queen's University (600)

**Australia – 590 and above**

GRE scores accepted by Australian universities include 
- Melbourne Business School (695)
- Monash Business School (650)
- Australian School of Business (650)
- Queensland University of Technology’s Business School (610)
- University of Sydney (550)

Besides these tests, one also needs to work on excelling in their academic qualifications in their high school and previous institution. Your application must be strongly supported by your passion to excel in your chosen field with a Statement of Purpose, your peers/guides recommending you in their letters. 


GMAT: Graduate Management Admission Test


**What is the GMAT score requirement for studying MBA at a top US university?**

The average GMAT score cut-off for business schools in the US is between 650-690. However, you must aim for 700+ if you want to ace for the top B-Schools of America. For example, the University of Pennsylvania has a cut-off of 732, Harvard Business School - 730, Stanford University - 733.

**Which universities offer MBA without GMAT in the US?**

The University of Hull, Ross School of Business - University of Michigan, Texas A&M University, Kellogg School of Management - Northwestern University, Boston University are some of the handful universities in the US that offer MBA without GMAT.

**Is IELTS required for studying in Germany?**

Although IELTS is not an obligatory test for German universities, it is better on your part to pursue education in the country. The average accepted score is between 5.5-6.5.


**Can I do an MBA in the UK without GMAT?**

Some of the top UK universities for MBA without GMAT include the University of Reading, University of Central Lancashire, Birmingham City Business School, Lancaster University Management School, Durham University Business School, Cranfield School of Management, Cranfield University, and Warwick School of Business and the University of Warwick.


**Should I take IELTS or TOEFL to study in the US?**

While IELTS is partially paper-oriented, the TOEFL test is fully online. However, instead of being a 2 hours and 45 minutes test like IELTS, the TOEFL is of 4 hours, including the same four categories of examination. However, in the US, most students opt for TOEFL as it is accepted by most US universities.



Frequently Asked Questions 

One of the biggest hurdles that one needs to cross for studying abroad is to score excellently in language and other entrance tests. Globally, the recognised and popular tests include IELTS (International English Language Testing System), GRE (Graduate Record Examinations), GMAT (Graduate Management Admission Test), and TOEFL (Test of English as a Foreign Language). Their scores make you stand out in a stack of thousands of applications from around the world. With the world becoming more competitive every day, these tests are a tool for aspiring students to make their dream of studying abroad a tangible, comprehensive reality. 

These exams also have certain scores that make your probability calculation into abroad universities quite easier. Let’s have a look at them in detail!


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Entrance Exams are an essential component of the application process. Check out the minimum GRE, GMAT, TOEFL, and IELTS scores for top colleges overseas.

Minimum Entrance Exam Scores Required To Study Abroad (Germany, USA, UK, Australia, Canada) - IELTS, TOEFL, GRE, & GMAT

The average GMAT score cut-off for business schools in the US is between 650-690. However, you must aim for 700+ if you want to ace for the top B-Schools of America. For example, the University of Pennsylvania has a cut-off of 732, Harvard Business School - 730, Stanford University - 733.

What is the GMAT score requirement for studying MBA at a top US university?

The University of Hull, Ross School of Business - University of Michigan, Texas A&M University, Kellogg School of Management - Northwestern University, Boston University are some of the handful universities in the US that offer MBA without GMAT.

Which universities offer MBA without GMAT in the US?

While IELTS is partially paper-oriented, the TOEFL test is fully online. However, instead of being a 2 hours and 45 minutes test like IELTS, the TOEFL is of 4 hours, including the same four categories of examination. However, in the US, most students opt for TOEFL as it is accepted by most US universities.

Should I take IELTS or TOEFL to study in the US?

Some of the top UK universities for MBA without GMAT include the University of Reading, University of Central Lancashire, Birmingham City Business School, Lancaster University Management School, Durham University Business School, Cranfield School of Management, Cranfield University, and Warwick School of Business and the University of Warwick.

Can I do an MBA in the UK without GMAT?

Although IELTS is not an obligatory test for German universities, it is better on your part to pursue education in the country. The average accepted score is between 5.5-6.5.

Is IELTS required for studying in Germany?

1.    C, E
2.    A, D
3.    B, F
4.    A, D
5.    D, F
6.    A, E
7.    A, D
8.    B, D
9.    C, F
10.    D, E
11.    A, F
12.    E, F
13.    C, D
14.    B, E
15.    A, E
16.    B, D
17.    B, C
18.    D, F
19.    C, E
20.    A, E
21.    B, E
22.    B, C
23.    D, F
24.    B, E
25.    A, F
26.    D, E
27.    C, F
28.    C, E
29.    A, B
30.    A, D
31.    A, D
32.    D, F
33.    B, D
34.    E, F

 

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1.    Word clues such as “simper,” “snide,” and “insubordination” indicate that Katie’s daughter is rebellious. (B) zealous and (D) primal, even if you’re not sure what they mean, don’t have synonyms in the sentence. (A) docile means teachable and corresponds to (F) amenable, agreeable, which are too positive for the sentence. The answer is (C) incorrigible, which means unreformable, and (E) irredeemable.

2.    The phrase “While many…others” implies a contradiction within the sentence. Thus, the answer should be opposite in meaning to “enlightening” or “continually relevant.” Your word to fit the blank might be something like “obsolete” or “irrelevant.” (A) archaic and (D) antediluvian both mean outdated. A trick answer is (B) inane, which means empty or silly. This would make sense in the context of the sentence, but since none of the other answer choices are a close synonym, (B) cannot be an answer. The answer is (A) and (D).

3.    Since she has “surpassed frugality,” the blank must mean frugal to a greater degree. Look for words then that mean “cheap.” The answer is (B) and (F).

4.    Know your vocabulary, and use process of elimination. If he has trysts with supermodels, he is probably known as a womanizer. Eliminate the answers you know don’t mean that, such as (B) philanthropist, (E) patriarch, and (F) puritan. The answer is (A) and (D).

5.    The phrase “rather than” lets us know the blank is opposite in meaning to “subjective.” You might come up with the word “objective” for the blank. The answer is (D) and (F).

6.    “Suspect” and “mere” imply that the speaker has a less than positive opinion of the subject. A more negative description of joyousness would be foolishness or stupidity. The answer is (A) and (E).

7.    If a mother must “endlessly endure” something, she would require patience and determination. The answer is (A) and (D).

8.    For something to be scientifically valuable, it must be proven through several experiments. Look for words that mean “proven.” The answer is (B) and (D).

9.    Abjuring carnal pleasures means becoming less worldly and practicing self-restraint and self-denial. If you don’t recognize some of the answer choices, eliminate the ones you know don’t fit. The answer is (C) and (F).

10.    Burnt hair smells terrible. If you don’t know this, the key phrase is “unpleasant result.” You might come up for a word to fit the blank such as “nasty.” The answer is (D) and (E).

11.    The clue to this sentence is the word “dulcet,” which means gentle and soothing. The phrase “One wouldn’t expect…to be anything but” indicates that the blank will support the positive connotation of “dulcet.” Thus, the synonym set (B) and (E), which mean irritable, cannot fit the blank. The answer is (A) and (F).

12.    Look for the set of synonyms in the answer choices. Though (A) prologue or (D) snippet might make sense in the context of the sentence, neither one has a synonym among the other answer choices. The answer is (E) and (F).

13.    Come up with your own word to fit the blank. Since the person must remain committed, the blank must be opposite in meaning to committed, such as “released.” Answers (A) and (B) do not mean “released,” and (E) and (F), though synonyms, mean the opposite of released. The answer is (C) and (D).

14.    Recognize the contradiction in the sentence — we know that the man Bradley speaks of is his “erstwhile co-conspirator,” but he is “dumbfounded” by what he says about him. Thus, he likely is not (A) lauding or (D) aggrandizing him; he is speaking ill of him. The answer is (B) and (E).

15.    This question is more difficult, as almost any of the answer choices could work within the sentence. So, you must rely on finding a set of synonyms. “Progeny” and “posterity” both mean offspring. The answer is (A) and (E).

16.    The key words in this sentence are “indigents,” meaning impoverished people, and “refuse,” meaning garbage. So, if poor people are building their homes out of garbage, they must have limited resources. The answer is (B) and (D).

17.    If there is tension between conquered and conqueror, an effective method of combatting it would be to lessen the differences between the two. By making all people “Romans,” the empire is integrating conquered nations into its culture. The answer is (B) and (C).

18.    To recapitulate means to recap or summarize, so the phrase would be “brief.” If you weren’t sure of the meaning of recapitulating, use the clues earlier in the sentence, which talk about lengthy, verbose passages and then one phrase. The answer is (D) and (F).

19.    If a company is on the verge of bankruptcy, they have neither funds nor the hope of getting funds in the near future. Thus, the “dubious hope” would be the acquisition of money. The answer is (C) and (E).

20.    If Michael is able to do the job (“aptitude is certain”), but he has a reputation for dishonesty (“probity is equivocal”), the manager would have a difficult time deciding whether to hire him. Come up with a word or phrase to fit the blank, such as “go back and forth.” The answer is (A) and (E).

21.    The phrase “in favor of” sets up a contradiction. So, if deists embrace a logically deduced god, they would reject or renounce the idea of an incomprehensive one. The answer is (B) and (E).

22.    Know your vocabulary. A “behemoth” is a “monster” or anything of monstrous size or power. If you didn’t recognize this vocabulary word, you could have figured it out by recognizing that in order to acquire a “modest” company among others, this company must be large. To “amalgamate” means to consolidate. Thus, using the context clues, you might come up with a word like “demoted” “lowered” to fit the blank, as Jenny has moved from being a business owner to a manager. The answer is (B) and (C).

23.    The phrase “rather than” lets us know the blank will be dissimilar to “empowered,” a word with positive connotation. Thus, we can eliminate (A) emancipated and (B) euphoric, because both of these words have positive meanings. Be careful here, though; several of the remaining answer choices make sense in the context of the sentence, but the key is to find the two that give it similar meaning. (D) and (F) both mean fatigued or weakened. The answer is (D) and (F).

24.    The key words in this sentences are “while,” which sets up a contradiction, and “explicitly,” which demonstrates that a close distinction will be made. To sanction is to openly support, so the blank should mean to support but not openly. The answer is (B) and (E).

25.    One would expect an aging man to move slowly and carefully, so if the way he’s moving is surprising, he would be moving quickly. The answer is (A) and (F).

26.    Eliminate answers (A) and (B), which don’t fit the context of the sentence. All of the remaining answer choices could work, but it is (D) and (E) that give it similar meaning. The answer is (D) and (E).

27.    This is a difficult question. The key vocabulary word in the sentence is “salubrious,” which means healthful. Thus, if the connection has convinced some nutritionists that eggs are healthful, it must be a weak tie between eggs, which contain high levels of dietary cholesterol, and blood cholesterol, which determines health. The answer is (C) and (F).

28.    Pretentious people put on airs, so a new neighbor that stands out would be genuine or sincere. The answer is (C) and (E).

29.    Several of the answer choices could fit the blank, so try to eliminate the lone rangers. “Frugality” and “affability,” though they might make sense in the sentence, don’t have any related words in the answer choices. Recognize two sets of answers — Diffidence and reticence and boldness and temerity. If the market is competitive, you would need to be bold. The answer is (A) and (B).

30.    The state preceding a massive collapse and explosion? Sounds pretty “unstable.” Look for the synonyms that mean unstable. The answer is (A) and (D).

31. The word “while” indicates a contrast between what is expressed in the first clause (welcoming the move) and what is expressed in the second clause (opposing the move). The answer is (A) and (D).

32. “Despite” sets up a contrast between the key phrase “uplifting experience” and the missing word. The implication is that in spite of the rewards, the job is harsh and trying. The answer is (D) and (F).

33. The passage states that when sitting behind his desk J. Edgar Hoover looked larger than he actually was. So the perspective must have increased the appearance of his size. “Distorted” could make sense in the sentence, but there is no other closely related word in the answer choices. The answer is (B) and (D).

34. The word “as” in the sentence indicates that the missing word is explained or defined by the clause that follows it: “they do not complain about menial chores given to them or about harsh treatment meted out.” This aptly describes a “docile” or “compliant” person. The answer is (E) and (F).

Answers & Solutions

1. Her snide remarks, her simpering smile, and above all, her unceasing insubordination drove Katie to conclude that her teenage daughter was the most ________ child that had ever lived. 
(A) docile 
(B) zealous 
(C) incorrigible 
(D) primal 
(E) irredeemable 
(F) amenable 


2. While many find the writings of early feminist writers such as Mary Woolstonecraft to be enlightening and still relevant, others find their writings ________. 
(A) archaic 
(B) inane 
(C) idiosyncratic 
(D) antediluvian 
(E) illuminative 
(F) edifying 

3. Judith feigned a forgotten wallet to evade paying for dinner, proving she had surpassed frugality and become ________. 
(A) jejune 
(B) parsimonious 
(C) prudent 
(D) penitent 
(E) economical 
(F) miserly 

4. Bradford’s many notorious trysts with various supermodels have earned him a reputation as a ________. 
(A) libertine 
(B) philanthropist 
(C) marionette 
(D) lecher 
(E) patriarch 
(F) puritan 

5. Existential philosophers such as Friedrich Nietzsche are known for focusing on the subjective aspects of life rather than the ________. 
(A) obscure 
(B) personal 
(C) disingenuous 
(D) dispassionate 
(E) illusory
(F) unbiased 

6. While others label her seemingly “carpe diem” attitude as carefree blithesomeness, I suspect it is mere ________. 
(A) fatuity 
(B) frivolity 
(C) ingenuity 
(D) falsetto 
(E) imbecility 
(F) cunning 

7. Being a stay-at-home mother requires more ________ than career-driven women often concede; indeed, it involves endlessly enduring children’s tantrums and mutinies. 
(A) forbearance 
(B) fidelity 
(C) clout 
(D) fortitude 
(E) retribution 
(F) fecklessness 

8. The functional aspects of biodiversity are broad and vague and thus require further ________ to become more scientifically valuable. 
(A) stratagem 
(B) validation 
(C) negation 
(D) substantiation 
(E) abrogation 
(F) talion 

9. Monks may be Christian, Buddhist, or Jain, but, though they differ in many beliefs, most orders are alike in practicing ________; they abjure carnal pleasures in pursuit of a life more conducive to spiritual enlightenment. 
(A) debauchery 
(B) lenience 
(C) asceticism 
(D) desuetude 
(E) peregrination
(F) abstinence

10. Sam’s pyromaniac younger brother had a habit of singeing the tips of his hair; the unpleasant result was a ________ smell that permeated the house. 
(A) querulous 
(B) banal 
(C) pithy 
(D) acrid 
(E) pungent 
(F) dull 

11. Listening to the dulcet crooning of famous American singer Frank Sinatra, one would never suspect his temperament to be anything but ________. 
(A) congenial 
(B) irascible 
(C) jocular 
(D) indolent 
(E) cantankerous 
(F) amiable 

12. Dr. Martin Luther King Jr.’s role as leader of the Civil Rights Movement made him the target of violence; a flaming brick thrown through the window of his home, for example, was a ________ of greater violence, culminating in his assassination. 
(A) prologue 
(B) quadrille 
(C) renaissance 
(D) snippet 
(E) omen 
(F) harbinger 

13. The US Supreme Court case Foucha v. Louisiana established that a person declared not guilty by reason of insanity must remain committed and cannot be ________ until he can sufficiently demonstrate he is no longer a danger to society. 
(A) denounced 
(B) disavowed 
(C) acquitted 
(D) discharged 
(E) incarcerated 
(F) apprehended 

14. Bradley was dumbfounded to hear his erstwhile co-conspirator go on the record and ________ him.
 
(A) laud 
(B) denigrate 
(C) buttress 
(D) aggrandize 
(E) malign 
(F) accost 

15. Covert societies, such as the Y Society at University of Virginia and Skull and Bones at Yale, often rely on the ________ of former members to continue the tradition with each generation. 
(A) progeny 
(B) prominence 
(C) benefaction 
(D) tenacity 
(E) posterity 
(F) travail 

16. Due to a ________ of resources, indigents in cities such as Johannesburg, South Africa, inhabit shanty towns, where they construct houses out of refuse. 
(A) myriad 
(B) dearth 
(C) dichotomy 
(D) paucity 
(E) perpetuity 
(F) profusion 

17. To combat the tension between conquered and conqueror that seems to inevitably spark revolution, the Roman Empire adopted a practice of ________, attempting to make all conquered nations “Romans.” 
(A) deterrence 
(B) integration 
(C) assimilation 
(D) hegemony 
(E) totalitarianism 
(F) subjugation 

18. Stevens was infamous for writing lengthy, verbose pages before recapitulating in one ________ phrase. 
(A) jocular 
(B) interminable 
(C) monolithic 
(D) pithy 
(E) monotonous 
(F) concise 

19. With an immediate ________ of funds only a dubious hope, the company’s owner began to reconcile himself to bankruptcy. 
(A) abatement 
(B) bequest 
(C) accretion 
(D) fluctuation 
(E) augmentation 
(F) reduction 

20. When the time came to decide whether or not to hire Michael, the store manager couldn’t help but ________; Michael’s aptitude was certain, his probity equivocal. 
(A) vacillate 
(B) relent 
(C) rejoice 
(D) propitiate 
(E) hesitate 
(F) exult 

21. Many of the Founding Fathers were influenced by deism, a religious philosophy that ________ the belief in an incomprehensible god in favor of a deity whose existence may be logically deduced. 
(A) professes 
(B) abjures 
(C) entrenches 
(D) avers 
(E) eschews 
(F) pursues 

22. When the corporate behemoth purchased Jenny’s modest company, it amalgamated its other recent acquisitions, and Jenny was ________ to a managerial position. 
(A) elevated 
(B) relegated 
(C) demoted 
(D) abrogated 
(E) proscribed 
(F) deflected 

23. Megan left the first conditioning session of the season feeling ________ rather than empowered. 
(A) emancipated 
(B) euphoric 
(C) quashed 
(D) enervated 
(E) vexed 
(F) debilitated 

24. While the politician never explicitly sanctioned the use of mudslinging by his campaign managers, there was a tacit understanding that he ________ it. 
(A) prohibited 
(B) condoned 
(C) buttressed 
(D) censured 
(E) overlooked 
(F) conferred 

25. The aging man moved with surprising ________. 
(A) alacrity 
(B) pathos 
(C) sluggishness 
(D) rancor 
(E) laxity 
(F) swiftness 

26. His long-winded diatribe against members of the opposing party convinced me he was one of the most ________ politicians I’d ever met. 
(A) progressive 
(B) benign 
(C) untoward 
(D) sanctimonious 
(E) smug 
(F) zealous 

27. The ________ link between dietary cholesterol and blood cholesterol levels has convinced many nutritionists of the long debated salubriousness of eggs. 
(A) cursory 
(B) dubious 
(C) tenuous 
(D) incontrovertible 
(E) chary 
(F) insubstantial 

28. In a bourgeois community full of pretentious people, I was taken aback by the new neighbor’s ________. 
(A) exigency 
(B) guile 
(C) artlessness 
(D) ambiguity 
(E) ingenuousness 
(F) cheekiness 

29. ________ becomes a necessary asset in the brutally competitive job market of a deteriorating economy. 
(A) boldness 
(B) temerity 
(C) diffidence 
(D) frugality 
(E) reticence 
(F) affability 

30. For most stars in the galaxy, the Red Giant or Super Red Giant phase is the most ________, as it precedes a massive collapse that results in the formation of a planetary nebula. 
(A) mercurial 
(B) voluminous 
(C) immutable 
(D) volatile 
(E) tranquil 
(F) prodigal 

31. While environmentalists and NGO’s have welcomed the move, there has been strong ________ from many a quarter.
 
(A) opposition 
(B) rivalry 
(C) approval 
(D) counteraction 
(E) acceptance 
(F) animus 

32. Despite all its ________, a stint in the diplomatic core is invariably an uplifting experience. 
(A) merits 
(B) compensation 
(C) effectiveness 
(D) rigors 
(E) mediocrity 
(F) hardships 

33. Though a small man, J. Edgar Hoover appeared to be much larger behind his desk; for, having skillfully designed his office, he was _______ by the perspective. 
(A) distorted 
(B) augmented 
(C) apprehended 
(D) magnified 
(E) disconcerted 
(F) lessened 

34. Children not only provide cheap labor, but they are also ________, as they do not complain about menial chores given to them or about harsh treatment meted out. 
(A) impertinent 
(B) facile 
(C) presumptuous 
(D) hesitant 
(E) docile 
(F) compliant

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The GRE exams can be challenging. Here, we have provided GRE Verbal Practice Questions – Sentence Equivalence with answers for you to aid you. Take a look

GRE Verbal Practice Questions – Sentence Equivalence

Practice, Solve mock tests and work on your vocabulary. Our page does have practice tests for you.

How can I improve my sentence equivalence in GRE?

Answers and Solutions
1.    dramatic
2.    nullifies
3.    vivacious
4.    chaotic … flaunt
5.    lose
6.    rationalize … justifying … advantageous
7.    fundamental … mundane … catalyst for
8.    exert
9.    picturesque … an exquisite
10.    implications
11.    preconceived … an impoverished
12.    fails … inherently
13.    sensitive to
14.    dilapidated…high
15.    sound … belied
16.    alternative
17.    profession
18.    polarized … negligible … deference
19.    jaded … indiscretions
20.    precarious
21.    growth … fallen
22.    austere
23.    enigmatic
24.    prejudice
25.    drivel … to entertain
26.    integrate
27.    immediacy … pragmatism
28.    advocating
29.    protest … overcrowding
30.    neglectful
31.    castigated … stable
32.    increased … a loss
33.    an anathema … desirable
34.    evil … sophistication
35.    reticent … amiable
36.    predisposition …  cataclysmic
37.    menace … non-ecofriendly
38.    usefulness … accepted
39.    youthful
40.    conflicting … unequivocally
41.    profiling … influential
42.    penchant … matriarchal
43.    tropical
44.    rampaging … irony
45.    hyperbole
46.    bravado

1.    If the public expects a comedian to always make them laugh, then they might not accept a comedian in a serious role.  Hence, the directors would be loath (reluctant) to cast a comedian in a dramatic role.

2.    The phrase “all but” implies that the debate was a make-or-break event for the candidate.  Suppose the candidate did well.  Then his spirits would be high, and we would expect the missing word to be positive.  However, a positive word in the phrase “all but ________ any hope” is awkward.  Hence, the candidate must have done poorly in the debate and had his hopes for election nixed.  So we turn to the answer-choices looking for “nixed.”  It’s not there, but a synonym—nullifies—is.

3.    Since no connecting word—such as and, for, so, etc.—follows the comma, the phrase “seemingly with an endless reserve of energy” defines the missing word.  Now, a person with an endless reserve of energy would be lively, which is the meaning of vivacious.

4.    Recognize that the phrase “dismantled by war and its development clogged by illiteracy” is in apposition to the first blank. Such description would best be described as chaotic. The phrase “In spite of” lets us know that the locals do not feel how one would expect them to about their country. Thus, instead of feeling what we’d expect—disgrace—they take pride in their country, or flaunt their nationalism.

5.    “Yet” draws a contrast between what one would expect an Atheist to do (renounce faith in God) and what Liharev did (maintained faith in God).  In other words, he did not lose faith in God.

6.    This is an example of a multiple blank question in which the answers heavily depend on each other. The sentence following the colon is in apposition to the sentence in front of it. For this question, perhaps the easiest blank to answer first is Blank 3, “_____ to him but injurious to others,” which can be solved without referencing the rest of the sentence. “But” sets up a contradiction between “injurious” and the blank, which must mean “beneficial,” or advantageous. Now, reread the entire sentence with “advantageous” in the blank. If someone is performing acts that help himself but hurt others, the first blank must mean something like “support.” The word here, then, is rationalize. Reread the sentence with both blanks filled in. If a person is rationalizing evil, then they are “supporting”—or justifying—that belief system.

7.    Start with the second blank. In the sentence structure—“drab, ______ DMV”—one can deduce that the blank is synonymous with “drab” — mundane. Now, turn to the third blank. The phrase “who would have believed” implies that the reality is the opposite of what one would expect.  Now, one would not expect the drab DMV to be a catalyst for creativity. Return to the first sentence. If people are inspired by a drab location, then people’s desire for expression must not come from the exterior, it must come from within—it is fundamental.

8.    The sentence implies that even when Erikson knows he is taking the wrong path in life, he still cannot stop.  That is, he cannot exert free will.

9.    The sentence implies that the location, though having splendid natural settings, is distressed by the ongoing battle. We can observe from the structure of the sentence that both blanks explain the natural beauty of the location. The author implies that if the location had no overtones of the battlefield, it would have been a picturesque airfield in an exquisite part of the North.

10.    The sentence is saying that although a word may not be explicitly sexist it may contain sexist connotations or implications.

11.    One would reasonably assume, preconceive, that a state where parents are alleged to have sold their children in exchange for food is an impoverished state. Note, “impoverished” is the second-best choice for blank two. Although an impoverished state is probably impotent, impoverished describes the situation better.

12.    Since man is violent, any useful theory of conflict resolution must incorporate this fact.  Thus, any one that fails to account for it is inherently flawed.

13.    The clause “whereas in a totalitarian regime, no one is listening” implies that a democracy does listen to protests.  In other words, it is sensitive to protests.

14.    “Although” sets up a contrast between what the property values are (high) and what one would expect them to be in a dilapidated (run down) community.

15.    If the business were not sound, his irritability would belie (contradict) his claim that the business was sound.

16.    The word “exhausted” implies that all other actions (alternatives) have been tried.

17.    The sentence is pointing out that as a practical matter the legal profession pursues the truth through a rough and tumble path.

18.    The second sentence contains the phrase “for example,” indicating that it provides clarification for the previous sentence. An argument over where to place a comma, then, indicates that the subjects of debate are often negligible (insignificant). If sides are arguing merely to gain power over the other side, then politics have become polarized. Finally, if both sides are struggling for power, then they wouldn’t give in—or show deference to the other side.

19.    A financial scandal is an indiscretion; and it may not have made the front page because the public was jaded (worn out) by an excess of scandals.

20.    The sentence is suggesting that it is risky—or precarious—to discuss certain subjects regardless of what you say.

21.    “Although” sets up a contrast between what happened in the market over a two year period (growth) and what happened in some shorter periods during that time—it fell.

22.    A complement is something that makes up a whole, bringing it to perfection.  Of the answer-choices offered, only austere could complement “love” in such a manner.

23.    We are told that the author is gracious, yet she makes the churlish comment: “My novels are to sophisticated for the American public.”  Such a comment would be considered enigmatic, as it is so out of her character.

24.    “Nevertheless” points out a contrast in how the judge felt (prejudice) and how he acted (without prejudice).

25.    “Condemnatory” implies that the word in the blank must mean something negative—drivel. The word “pretentious” indicates that the writer believes that the critics take themselves and movies too seriously.  That is, the main purpose of a movie is merely to entertain.

26.    Man is a social being; to function properly, he needs to be an integral part of society. When a person fails to integrate himself into society, he often feels alienated and incomplete, which, without a social support system, can lead to suicide. The author believes that those who commit suicide do so because they are unable to integrate themselves into the society.

27.    According to the author, the core issue involves a hard, practical point that is to be dealt with a pragmatic approach. Pragmatism means “practical approach.” The author stresses the immediacy of the situation since it is raising life-threatening issues.

28.    The general is accusing the senator of being naive (unsophisticated) for believing—or advocating—that air strikes alone could stop the aggressors.

29.    People are likely to protest a plan that they believe will cause gridlock. If they are protesting it, then, it must cause more negative effects, such as overcrowding.

30.    “Though” sets up a contrast between “magnanimous” (charitable) and neglectful.

31.    The sentence is implying that no one could have foreseen the collapse of the Soviet Union, so the intelligence community should not be criticized—or castigated—for also not foreseeing it. The author gives an example of an expert, and if the author is defending the intelligence community, then the expert must not have foreseen it either, seeing it rather as a stable society.

32.    In a shortage, fuel prices would increase. The sentence is pointing out, however, that in spite of the higher prices the suppliers saw a loss in profits.
33.    The sentence is pointing out the difference between the attitudes of people in the ‘50s and the attitudes today.  If Americans accept it today, then it used to be a curse—or an anathema—in the 50’s. The opposite of a curse would be desirable.

34.    The writer is pointing out that one who overcomes evil is more admirable than one who is born simple, lacking the sophistication to be bad.

35.    If no peace treaty has been signed after 50 years, then the countries are probably reticent (reluctant) to develop more amiable (friendly) relations.

36.    The author makes a distinction between two types of people who commit suicide—one type that can’t bear tragic—or cataclysmic—events, and those who are born with an inclination—or predisposition—to commit suicide.

37.    The second clause states that worldwide steps are being taken to ban plastic. The word “and” joining the two clauses of the sentence indicates that the first clause should provide a reason for the worldwide ban of plastic. The reason is that plastic is proving to be a menace to the environment. The second blank needs to be filled by a word that supports the statement and shows the negative consequences of plastic usage. The suitable word is non-ecofriendly.

38.    The conjunction “and” in the phrase “Despite its _______ and safety” indicates that the missing word has a positive meaning because “safety” has a positive meaning. Since the sentence is implying that the drug is useful in curing depression and anxiety, it is expected that the drug would be widely used. But “despite” implies that the drug is not widely accepted.

39.    The word “age” in the sentence implies that the missing word is characteristic of age. Youthful fits well: Despite her advanced age, she has a youthful sense of humor.

40.    The word “and” in the phrase “different and ________ versions” indicates that the missing word is similar in meaning to the word “different.” Now, different versions of an event can be conflicting. Furthermore, a dastardly act needs to be condemned unequivocally.

41.    The show was organized to tell the stories of successful celebrities. By profiling these celebrities, the show narrates the stories of the influential newsmakers from all walks of life.

42.    Since hyenas eat carrion (decaying flesh), they have an inclination—or penchant—for it. A society ruled by females is called matriarchal.

43.    The word “both” in the statement implies there are two different types of sunscreen. Since one is internal, the other one should be external or at least of a different type. The choices “territorial,” “atmospheric,” “regional,” and “polar” do not imply the opposite of internal. However, a “topical” treatment is applied to body surfaces, usually the skin. This is the opposite of internal treatment.

44.    The first sentence describes AIDS as a big threat; it also describes another disease that is unreported and is on a greater rampage. Yet, the author says there is a cure for this silent killer. It is ironic that the silent killer causes more harm than AIDS, yet it is curable.

45.    The statement implies that Michael is certainly not the greatest American actor but seems to Julianne by comparison. To believe him to be the greatest actor would be to indulge in hyperbole.

46.    The word “only” in the first clause limits the meaning of courage: They have courage, but only to a point. The word “bluff” in the second clause indicates that their courage is merely bluster. This is the meaning of bravado.

1. Because of his success as a comedian, directors were loath to consider him for ________ roles. 
A) supporting 
B) leading 
C) dramatic 
D) comedic 
E) musical 


2. The aspiring candidate’s performance in the debate all but ________ any hope he may have had of winning the election. 
A) nullifies 
B) encourages 
C) guarantees 
D) accentuates 
E) contains 

3. She is the most ________ person I have ever met, seemingly with an endless reserve of energy. 
A) jejune 
B) vivacious 
C) solicitous 
D) impudent 
E) indolent 

4. In spite of the (1) ________ vista of the country, dismantled by war and its development clogged by illiteracy, locals like to (2) ________ their nationalism. 
**Blank 1** 
diverse 
chaotic 
static 
**Blank 2** 
flaunt 
curb 
conceal 

5. Liharev flirts with being both a nihilist and an atheist during his life, yet he never does ________ faith in God. 
affirm 
lose 
scorn 
aver 
supplicate 

6. Existentialism can be used to (1) ________ evil: if one does not like the rules of society and has no conscience, he may use existentialism as a means of (2) ________ a set of beliefs that are (3) ________ to him but injurious to others. 
**Blank 1** 
rationalize 
thwart 
condemn 
**Blank 2** 
converting 
impugning 
justifying 
**Blank 3** 
adverse 
asinine 
advantageous 

7. These categories amply point out the (1)__________ desire that people have to express themselves and the cleverness they display in that expression; who would have believed that the drab, (2) ________ DMV would become the (3) ________ such creativity? 
**Blank 1** 
acquired 
fundamental 
platonic 
**Blank 2** 
mundane 
incorrigible 
inspiring 
**Blank 3**
inhibitor of 
catalyst for 
censor of 

8. This argues well that Erikson exercised less free will than Warner; for even though Erikson was aware that he was misdirected, he was still unable to ________ free will. 
defer 
facilitate 
proscribe 
prevent 
exert 

9. Located amidst the colossal green hills, what might have otherwise been a (1)_______ airfield in (2)_______ part of the North assumed the overtones of the battlefield. 
**Blank 1** 
picturesque 
combatant 
stark 
 **Blank 2** 
an estranged 
an exquisite 
a war torn 

10. Though most explicitly sexist words have been replaced by gender-neutral terms, sexism thrives in the ________ of many words. 
indistinctness 
similitude 
loquacity 
implications 
obscurity 

11. We landed at the airport with (1)_______ notions of the country as (2)_______ country where many parents are alleged to have sold their children in exchange for food. 
**Blank 1** 
unwarranted 
germane 
preconceived 
**Blank 2** 
an impotent 
an impoverished 
an opulent 

12. Man is violent; therefore, any theory of conflict resolution between nations that (1)___________ to account for this is (2)__________ flawed.
**Blank 1** 
declines 
consents 
fails 
**Blank 2** 
inherently 
pejoratively 
manifestly 

13. Ironically, the foreign affairs policies of democracies are more likely to meet with protests than similar policies of totalitarian regimes because a democracy is ________ protest; whereas in a totalitarian regime, no one is listening. 
impassive to 
indifferent to 
imperiled by 
sensitive to 
inured to 

14. Although the buildings and streets of this small beach town appear (1) ________, the property values are quite (2) ________. 
**Blank 1** 
expensive 
dilapidated 
refurbished 
**Blank 2** 
high 
pedestrian 
reasonable 

15. Though he claimed the business was (1)___________, his irritability (2)___________ that claim. 
**Blank 1** 
expanding 
static 
sound 
**Blank 2**
vindicated 
belied 
affirmed 

16. The rules of engagement for United Nations troops stationed in Bosnia prohibit deadly force unless all ________ actions have be exhausted. 
comparable 
arbitrary 
alternative 
apropos 
extraordinary 

17. Despite its lofty goal—truth—many scholars maintain that law as a ________ is a highly regulated street fight. 
dogma 
study 
profession 
philosophy 
lifestyle 
 
18. Some argue that American politics have become so (1) ________ that politicians will argue merely to gain power, and the subject of debate is often (2) ________. The vigorous dispute over where to place a comma in the Republican platform, for example, was motivated not by any significant change in meaning but by a desire not to show any (3) ________ to the other side. 
**Blank 1** 
antiquated 
polarized 
homogenized 
**Blank 2** 
neglibile 
exigent 
convoluted 
**Blank 3** 
ambivalence 
deference 
favoritism 

19. The citizenry had become so (1) ________ by the president’s (2) ________ that the latest financial scandal did not even make the front page of the newspapers. 
**Blank 1** 
jaded 
disgusted 
fascinated 
**Blank 2** 
indiscretions 
magnanimity 
peccadilloes 

20. In these politically correct times, it has become ________ to discuss certain subjects at all. 
safe 
eccentric 
precarious 
efficacious 
effortless 

 21. Although the stock market has experienced strong (1) ________ in the past two years, there have been short periods in which the market has (2) ________ precipitously. 
**Blank 1** 
sluggishness 
growth 
stagnation 
**Blank 2** 
fallen 
stabilized 
increased 

22. Her ________ attitude toward child-rearing was complemented with plenty of love. 
austere 
indifferent 
ambivalent 
lenient 
sycophantic 

23. The interviewer was startled to hear the otherwise gracious author make the ________ remark: “My novels are too sophisticated for the American public.” 
apt 
enigmatic 
bombastic 
vacuous 
insightful 

24. The judge openly associated with racist organizations; nevertheless, he showed no ________ in his decisions during his career. 
favoritism 
benevolence 
openness 
prejudice 
altruism 

25. The condemnatory (1) ________ of critics directed toward Steven Spielberg’s latest film attests to the fact that the pretentious critics have lost sight of the purpose of movies: (2) ________. 
**Blank 1** 
drivel 
laud 
circumlocution 
**Blank 2** 
to entertain 
to correct 
to convert 

26. Suicide is the outcome of man’s difficulty to ________ himself in society, so he does not feel isolated.
materialize 
seclude 
homogenize 
secure 
integrate 

27. It is a situation with a hard, practical edge which raises issues of life-threatening (1)_______. Therefore, it demands to be addressed with cool, clear-headed (2)_______. 
**Blank 1** 
evidence 
immediacy 
existence 
**Blank 2** 
pragmatism 
erudition 
involvement 

28. The general accused the senator of naiveté for ________ that air strikes alone could stop the aggressors. 
advocating 
denying 
obfuscating 
mishandling 
disallowing 

29. Hundreds of citizens showed up to (1)________ the planning commission’s master plan for regional centers, claiming that adding 800,000 additional people to the metro area by the year 2020 would cause (2)__________ and gridlock. 
**Blank 1** 
celebrate 
amend 
protest 
**Blank 2** 
overcrowding 
bathos 
duplicity 

30. Though ________ toward his own material needs, he was always magnanimous toward others. 
neglectful 
charitable 
profligate 
improvident 
condemnatory 

 31. The intelligence community should not be (1)________ for not foreseeing the fall of the Soviet Union; even Hedrick Smith, author of The Russians, stated in 1986 that the Soviet Union is the world’s most (2)_______ society. 
 **Blank 1** 
applauded 
castigated 
engendered 
**Blank 2** 
arbitrary 
stable 
conscientious 

32. Although prices (1) ________ during the fuel shortage, the suppliers actually saw (2)___________ in profits. 
**Blank 1** 
fluctuated 
decreased 
increased 
**Blank 2** 
a windfall 
a loss 
a boon 

33. In the 1950s, integration was (1) ________ to most Americans; now, however, most Americans accept it as (2) ________. 
**Blank 1** 
an anathema 
welcome 
common 
**Blank 2** 
sporadic 
desirable 
mandatory 

 34. A more admirable character would have been one who overcame his (1) ________ impulses and became good; rather than one who merely lacked the (2) ________ to be bad. 
**Blank 1** 
ire 
compassionate 
evil 
**Blank 2** 
serenity 
patience 
sophistication 

 35. Although World War II ended more than half a century ago, Russia and Japan still have not signed a formal peace treaty; and both countries have been (1) ________ to develop more (2) ________ relations. 
**Blank 1** 
reticent 
inimical 
obstinate 
**Blank 2** 
controversial 
hostile 
amiable 

36. Some are born with a (1)_______ to commit suicide, whereas some commit suicide because they are unable to bear (2)_______ changes in their lives. 
**Blank 1** 
predisposition 
prognosis 
prodigy 
**Blank 2** 
cataclysmic 
inimical 
perpetual 

37. Today, plastic has proved to be a (1)_______ to the environment; the world over, steps are being taken to ban the (2)_______ and non-recyclable material, which has silently taken over our lives. 
**Blank 1** 
perquisite 
menace 
boon 
**Blank 2** 
non-ecofriendly 
ominous 
cacophonous 

38. Despite its (1) ________ and safety in treating some of the most incapacitating forms of depression and anxiety, it has not been widely (2) ________. 
 **Blank 1** 
usefulness 
ineffectuality 
potency 
**Blank 2** 
renounced 
accepted 
commenced 

39. Despite her age, she has a silly and ________ sense of humor. 
mature 
trivial 
ambiguous 
asinine 
youthful 

40. There are different and (1) ________ versions about what happened in the city, but one thing is certain: it a dastardly act that must be condemned (2) ________. 
**Blank 1 ** 
complementary 
falsified 
conflicting 
**Blank 2** 
commensurately 
unequivocally 
promptly 

41. By (1)________ celebrities from the sports, entertainment, or business arenas, the show narrates the stories of the (2)________ newsmakers from all walks of life. 
**Blank 1** 
narrating 
profiling 
parading 
**Blank 2** 
influential 
ordinary 
pedestrian 

42. Behind their strange appearance and (1)________ for carrion, which has long singled them out for fear and loathing, hyenas present a (2)________ society in which females dominate. 
**Blank 1** 
penchant 
aversion 
chary 
**Blank 2** 
realistic 
matriarchal 
monarchal 

 43. At the cutting edge of research, scientists are developing new sunscreens of both ________ and internal varieties.
polar 
topical 
territorial 
atmospheric 
regional 
 
44. Although the AIDS epidemic is in the limelight, there is a silent killer (1)_______ through India, killing more people than AIDS itself. The (2)_______ is that, unlike AIDS, this disease is easily cured. 
**Blank 1** 
rampaging 
digressing 
alleviating 
**Blank 2** 
conundrum 
conflict 
irony 

45. Knowing that she was overshadowed by many other actors, Julianne recognized that she was indulging in a bit of ________ when she wondered whether Michael was the greatest living actor. 
irony 
overemphasis 
understatement 
hyperbole 
injustice 

46. Their courage is only ________; a small show of strength is enough to call their bluff. 
ostentation 
fortitude 
temperament 
exhibition 
bravado

The GRE exams can be challenging. Here, we have provided GRE Verbal Practice Questions - Text Completions with answers for you to aid you. Take a look.

46 GRE Verbal Practice Questions – Text Completions

How can I improve my text equivalence in GRE?


GRE stands for Graduate Record Admission.

To pursue Master’s at most of the schools in the US and many schools in Canada, you would be required to submit your GRE score.

Many schools in other countries many also give some weight to your GRE score. So if you are planning to pursue MS overseas, your default choice is to take GRE.

Consult school websites or a qualified counselor, like us, to know whether you need to take GRE and what would be a good score for you.

GRE is a 3 hour and 45 minutes, multiple-choice, multi-stage test.

The GRE Board oversees GRE tests, services and research and establishes all policies for the GRE Program, which is administered by ETS.

1) What is GRE?

The GRE measures your verbal reasoning, quantitative reasoning, critical thinking, and analytical writing skills. The GRE test has three sections:

- GRE Quantitative, also called Quant)
- GRE Verbal
- GRE Analytical Writing Analysis, also called AWA
- GRE test score ranges from 260–340, with 0–6 rating for the Analytical Writing section.

2) What is GRE Syllabus?

GRE Quantitative section assesses you following abilities:

1. Understand quantitative information
2. Interpret and analyze quantitative information
3. Solve problems using mathematical models
4. Apply the basic mathematical concepts of arithmetic, algebra, geometry, probability, and statistics

GRE Quant section consists of 2 separate 35-minute sections with 20 questions, each consisting of:

1. **Algebra**: Includes, simultaneous and quadratic equations, inequalities, word problems, exponents, co-ordinate geometry and other operations regarding intercepts and slopes; application of these to real world problems.
2. **Arithmetic**: Includes, integers and their properties such as factorization, divisibility, odd and even, prime numbers, remainders, ratio proportion, percentage, absolute values and decimal representations.
3. **Geometry**: Includes, properties of lines parallel and perpendicular, different types of triangles like isosceles, equilateral and other polygons, circle and its various properties, Pythagorean theorems and areas/perimeters and volumes. Pay special attention to this topic as this is notorious for being too difficult for many students.
4. **Data analysis**: Includes topics from statistics: mean, mode, median, quartiles, range, deviation etc. Ask questions about interpreting data with the help of tables, graphs, charts and frequency distributions, and answer questions involving concepts of Probability, Permutation and Combination.

2.1) GRE Quant Syllabus


GRE Verbal section assesses your comprehension skills i.e. how well you can comprehend written information.

Some questions need you to go through a passage, read it, comprehend the information, and answer related questions. While others test your ability to understand different sentence structures and your contextual understanding of words and sentences through text completion questions. Following are the keys areas in which you are tested in GRE verbal section:

1. Analyze and draw conclusions from discourse; reason from incomplete data; identify author’s assumptions and/or perspective; understand multiple levels of meaning, such as literal, figurative, and author’s intent.
2. Select important points; distinguish relevant and major points from minor points; summarize text; understand the structure of a text.
3. Understand the meanings of words, sentences, and entire texts; understand relationships among words and among concepts.

The GRE Verbal test consists of 2 separate 30-minute sections with 20 questions, each consisting of:

1. Reading Comprehension: You will be given a passage to read and understand. Based on the passage, there will be questions for you to answer. Pay special attention to this section during your preparation as many students make mistakes by taking this section lightly.
2. Text Completion:You will be provided with 1-5 lines of text with some pieces of vital information missing that you are supposed to fill in.
3. Sentence Equivalence: You will be provided a sentence with a single blank that needs to be filled with two words from the six choices given below the question. Your two choices should complete the sentence in such a manner that the meaning of the sentence remains the same or similar with the two choices.

2.2) GRE Verbal Syllabus

GRE AWA assesses your analytical skills, which you present through your writing. It tests whether you can critically analyze an argument, rationally support your point of view and coherently present your ideas.

GRE AWA section, the first section that you would answer on the test day, consists of 2 separate 30 minute essay writing tasks

1. Analyze an Issue
2. Analyze an Argument

Through these essays, AWA section measures your ability to:

1. Articulate complex ideas effectively, coherently and clearly
2. Support your ideas with relevant reasons and examples
3. Sustain a well-focused, coherent discussion
4. Demonstrate mastery of the elements of standard written English

2.3) GRE AWA Syllabus


GRE exam is an adaptive test. Each section in GRE test is having a certain difficulty level assigned to it. Based on your performance in a section i.e. how may questions you answered correctly, you will be given the next section, which could be more difficult – thus allowing you to score higher – or less difficult.

Within a section you can skip questions, change your answers and control which questions you want to answer first. If do very well on your first verbal section, for example, the second verbal section you will see will be much more difficult. This is a good thing, because if you continue answering correctly, you can achieve highest score.

You will receive separate Verbal and Quantitative scores. These score are reported on a scale of 130 to 170, with one point increments.

AWA section is listed separately, and is scored on a scale of 0 to 6, with half–point increments.

3) How is the GRE exam scored?


To give you a sense, here is the type of universities that you can aim for, based on our experience.

1. With a score of 320+, you can realistically aim for top 20 universities in the US, assuming you have a GPA of 3.5 or more.
2. With a score of 310+, you can realistically aim for top 20-50 universities in the US, assuming you have a GPA of 3.2 or more.
3. You can still get admission into some good public universities with a score of 295+.

For any GRE score below 295, we don’t advise applying. With such low score, through you can still manage to get admission, but your entire purpose of studying overseas – for a global career and better standard of life – may get compromised. So, why so hurry? GRE is far simpler test than you may think and with a right approach you can easily crack 300+. Prepare again and get a better score.

You chances of admission will dramatically improve in all the above cases, if you also have relevant research experience, paper publications, internships and projects in related domain.

You can also maximize your chances of admission by carefully selected your target schools. Divide your target schools into three categories:

1. Dream: Schools, where your academic ability is little below the class average. For example, your GRE score is 312, against the class average of 315.
2. Reach: Schools, where you academic ability is at par with the class average. For example, your GRE score is 312, against the class average of 310.
3. Safe: Schools, where your academic ability is above the class average. For example, your GRE score is 312, against a class average of 302.

Please be mindful that in addition to average GRE score, there will be many more factors to decide your dream, reach and safe schools. For example, your GPA, research experience (papers published, internships and projects), extra-curricular, historical data about class profile, school and program that you are applying to among others.

4) What is a Good GRE Score?

The GRE Subject Tests test your knowledge of a particular subject like chemistry or biology. Very few schools require you to submit GRE Subject test score and, that too, when you are applying for a different major.

For example, you may have your engineering in Electrical Engineering, and you want to apply for MS in Neuroscience or Neuroengineering. Then some schools may ask for your GRE Subject Test score for Biology so that you could grasp Biology related concepts that would be required to pursue your MS successfully.

ETS offers GRE Subject Tests three times a year.

What are the GRE Subject Tests?


Start with getting the right resources for your GRE preparation. Following are some of the most effective resources to get you started:

1. **ETS Official GRE Guide (including the C D):** This is the official guide by ETS and will help you tremendously in building your approach to the exam. The four tests (2 in the CD and 2 in the book) that come along with the book are very useful and I recommend that you finish each of them at least 2 days before the exam.
2. **Kaplan GRE Practice Tests:** These tests are worth the money as they simulate actual GRE test conditions even though you take only one section at a time. I highly suggest that you finish the 20 sections (10 verbal and 10 Quant).
3. **Magoosh Online GRE Prep:** You can use Magoosh’s GRE prep whenever you like, following your own schedule. This flexibility is especially beneficial, if you are a working professional and don’t have much time to prepare for GRE.

How to Prepare for GRE Exam?

**7.1) Tips for GRE Quant**
1. Go through the Maths Review section in the ETS Official GRE Guide. You could get easily get blindsided by some obscure topics that you may not have come across earlier or may have forgotten. So please complete this section.
2. After completing Maths Review, start with the Kaplan Practice tests and finish them before moving on to the full length tests. Some questions can be extremely tricky! Pay attention to each and every single word, number or comparisons in the question. Avoid loosing marks for silly reasons.
3. Be extra careful in questions where a certain fact (like, X is a positive integer), comparison (0<c<d<1) or range of the variables (0<X<2) are mentioned. Many of the students make mistake in these are the questions for not reading the questions carefully.
4. You will need at least 10 minutes to verify your answers. If you complete your test and still have some extra time, you may solve few questions again, which you found tricky in your 1st attempt.
5. Remember to substitute values based on the ranges or inequalities provided in the question. It’s a sure-shot way of confirming your answer.

**7.2) Tips for GRE Verbal**

1. Go through the Magoosh’s flashcard apps to memorized each and every word on all the decks. Finish these decks by half a week before the exam and keep revising them in the remaining days before the exam.
2. If you are having difficulty remembering certain words, write those in a small notepad and go through them more often than other words.
3. If you have more than a month or so before your exam, start reading the editorial sections in decent newspaper – Hindu, Wall Street Journal or New York Times, and make sure you know each and every word’s meaning thoroughly.
4. Attempt the Kaplan Practice tests and finish them before moving on to the full length tests.
5. Avoid guessing word meanings – GRE is known for words which hold opposite meanings to what they actually sound like. For example, two high frequency words in the test are extant (approximate opposite of extinct) and equivocate (to mislead or lie).
6. During your practice test, go through each and every answer option carefully. Carefully consider each of them, before you rule any option out. This is especially true for the Reading Comprehension questions.
7. Some strategies like Method of Elimination and Trigger Words are must-have tools in your arsenal.
8. You should utilize the entire time allocated for each section. If you have finished answering all the questions, check and double-check each question until the time runs out.

**7.3) Tips for AWA**
1. Take AWA test, even when you take full-length practice tests on your own. This is the first section you will encounter in the test and can easily frustrate you if you are ill prepared.
2. Practice! You should at least write around 6-10 essays to get a feel of the section and improve your typing speed.
3. Read the sample essays in the various books mentioned above to understand key parameters for which you would be tested: coherency in response, continuity of thought, and clear and unambiguous expression of ideas with ample support in terms of facts or examples.
4. Keep 5 minutes aside at the end for proof reading. Avoid the temptation to continue writing just one more idea. You are better off writing a a short, organized and succinct essay rather than a long, haphazard and with spelling mistakes.

**7.4) Tips for the Test Day**
1. Relax. If you’ve worked hard and prepared thoroughly, be confident that you’ve done all you can do. True testing terror comes from being unprepared; conversely, proper preparation breeds confidence. Nerves are normal, but how you deal with them is up to you. Channel your adrenaline positively to give you the energy you need to maintain your focus all the way through.
2. The day after GRE. Remember that, while the GRE is surely important, it is not the end of the world. Put the GRE test event into perspective. Then do the best you can, which is the most you can ask of yourself.
3. Prepare for the worst. I am not suggesting you to go for the test with a negative attitude. But you need to be ready to start the test with AWA topics, which never fascinated you, followed by your less favorite multiple-choice section (since the Math and Verbal sections can appear in either order). If something like that happens, you’ll be prepared; if it doesn’t, you’ll be relieved. You win both ways!
4. Keep your focus. You may find the receptionist very attractive or the guy to the right of you may appear to breeze through his Issue essay in five minutes. Don’t let these distractions bother you! Stay focused on your objective and let the others take care of themselves.
5. Choose your battles. Keep moving throughout each section. If a question isn’t working for you, guess and move on.
6. Stick it out. By the time you reach the last section, you may be tempted to end your agony five minutes early. Hang in there and continue answering what you’ve practiced. Winners finish strong.
7. Arrive early. Getting stuck in traffic is not the best way to start your GRE test. If the testing center is in unfamiliar region, you may even wish to scout it out a day or two before just to be sure you know your way. One less thing to worry about couldn’t hurt.
8. Don’t sweat the small stuff. Okay, so what if the test room is not so cleaned or the staff at test center is not so courteous? Let is go, if you can’t do anything about it. Don’t allow small annoyances to distract you from your mission.
9. Gear up for a long haul. Don’t get too excited – the big day is finally here! Slow down; you don’t want to exhaust yourself too soon. You’ll reach the test site, endure the usual bureaucratic technicalities at the test center, and then be shown to a computer. “Go time” isn’t until you’ve completed the testing tutorial and the first AWA essay prompt appears on the screen.

7) Give Me Tips to Score 310+ in GRE

GRE tests help universities assess the suitability of prospective students who wish to pursue their master’s degree at the university by providing a common measure to compare candidates’ qualifications. While there are GRE subject tests, most universities require students to send in their GRE general test scores.

8) Why do universities require students to write the GRE test?

The GRE general test comprises 5 sections, of which, one section is for analytical writing, two sections for verbal reasoning and two sections for quantitative reasoning.

The analytical writing section involves analyzing and writing about an issue as well as an argument.

In the computer-delivered test, there is an additional section, which contains questions pertaining to either verbal or quantitative reasoning. This section is experimental in nature and is neither timed nor scored.

9) What is the structure of the GRE general test?

The length of the GRE general test varies depending on whether you have opted for the paper-delivered test or the computer-delivered test.

The computer-delivered test lasts for 3 hours and 45 minutes. You will be allotted specific time slots to complete each section.

In the analytical writing section, you will be given 30 minutes to analyze and write about an issue and 30 minutes to analyze an argument and write about it.

For the 2 verbal reasoning sections, you will be given 30 minutes to complete each. For the quantitative reasoning sections, you will have 35 minutes to complete each.

The remaining time can be used to attempt the experimental section. The paper-delivered test lasts for 3 hours and 30 minutes.

As was the case with computer-delivered tests, you will be given 30 minutes each for the two parts of the analytical writing section.

However, for the verbal reasoning section and the quantitative reasoning section, you will be given an additional five minutes for each part.

Hence, you will be given 35 minutes each, to answer the two verbal reasoning questions and 40 minutes each, to answer the quantitative reasoning questions.

10) How long is the GRE general test?

This section basically tests your comfort level in terms of understanding text and grammar. It tests your ability to analyse and evaluate information, and distinguish between concepts and words.

It also assesses your ability to analyse the relationship between different parts of sentences. Questions in this section are of three types – reading comprehension, text completion and sentence equivalence.

Reading comprehension will focus not only on your ability to understand paragraphs, but your ability to hone in on the important points, infer information from the paragraphs that can either be found in the body or those that aren’t written but implied.

When you finish reading the passage, you should have figured out the author’s position in the piece as well as his or her opinion on the topic. These passages can be drawn from a vast field of subjects that range from the humanities to the sciences to business topics.

In terms of text completion, there will be incomplete sentences and you will need to fill in the necessary words according to the context.

For sentence equivalence, you will be required to fill in the blanks with the most appropriate option from the six choices provided to you.

In addition to figuring out which word best suits the context, you will also have to select the two top options among all the choices provided.

11) What is the verbal reasoning section all about?

This section basically assesses your ability to understand quantitative information and apply your mathematical skills and the concepts of arithmetic, geometry, algebra and data interpretation to solve problems.

As was the case with verbal reasoning, quantitative reasoning has different types of questions.

Two of these are multiple choice questions – multiple choice questions with more than one correct answer and multiple choice questions with only one correct answer.

Some multiple choice questions will test your quantitative comparison skills.

You will also have to work on computational problems, where you enter a numeric answer after solving the problem.

If you take the paper-delivered test, you will receive a handheld calculator, and if you opt for the computer-delivered test instead, you will have an on-screen calculator.

12) What is the quantitative reasoning section all about?

This section measures your ability to critically analyse an argument as well as in issue.

In addition to your ability to analyse the passage, this section is also designed to test your ability to represent your ideas in a logical and clear manner.

If you choose to take the computer-delivered test, you will receive no advantages over a paper-delivered test taker. This is because you will have access to only a basic word processor with no spell-check.

13) What is the analytical writing section all about?

1. Verbal reasoning: 130-170 in 1-point increments
2. Quantitative reasoning: 130-170 in 1-point increments
3. Analytical writing: 0-6 in half-point increments

14) How is the GRE general test scored?

GRE in India is primarily conducted by Prometric and, in some cities, by other independent service providers.

View test centers, test dates and seat availability on ETS website.

Note that if you would like to register to test, you will need to create or sign in to your ETS Account.

While scheduling your test, you should keep the following things in mind:

1. The computer-delivered GRE is offered year-round at test centers that you can find at the link above.
2. Appointments are scheduled on a first-come, first-served basis.
3. When selecting a test date, make sure your scores will be reported in time for your application deadlines. For computer-delivered tests, scores reports are sent to your designated score recipients approximately 10–15 days after your test date.
4. You can take the computer-delivered GRE once every 21 days, up to five times within any continuous rolling 12-month period (365 days). This applies even if you canceled your scores on a test taken previously. 

Here is the list of cities where you can take GRE in India:

- Ahmedabad
- Allahabad
- Bangalore
- Chennai
- Cochin
- Coimbatore
- Dehradun
- Gandhinagar
- Gurgaon
- Gwalior
- Hyderabad
- Indore
- Kolkata
- Mumbai
- Nashik
- New Delhi
- Nizamabad
- Patna
- Pune
- Trivandrum
- Vadodara
- Vijawada

16) What are GRE Centers in India?

Many business schools accept GRE for MBA admission. So if you are wondering whether you should take GRE or GMAT, here are a few things to keep in mind:

1. Taking GRE widen your options for higher studies. With GRE you can not only apply for MBA, but also for MS or PhD programs.
2. If you are only planning to apply for MBA, taking GMAT would be better as not all business schools accept GRE.
3. Some of top investment banking and management consulting firms consider GMAT score as well while evaluating MBA job applicants.
4. GRE and GMAT exam formats are different. While the GRE has the verbal reasoning, quantitative reasoning and analytical writing sections, the GMAT has the Verbal, Quantitative, Integrated Reasoning and Analytical Writing Assessment sections.
5. In general, GMAT Quant seems tougher than GRE Quant whereas GRE Verbal seems tougher than GMAT verbal. Specifically engineers find GMAT easier as they may be good in Quant and not as good in Verbal. Many non-engineers prefer GRE for similar reasons – they find Verbal easier than Quant.
6. ETS provides a tool that facilitates GRE to GMAT conversion. However, whether bschools use this or have their internal process of comparing GRE to GMAT scores is an open question.

17) GRE vs GMAT

- **USA Business Schools that accepts GRE Score**
- Yale SOM
- Stanford GSB	
- Harvard	
- UCLA (Anderson)	
- UC-Berkeley (Haas)	
- Virginia (Darden)	
- NYU (Stern)	
- Cornell (Johnson)
- Duke (Fuqua)	
- Carnegie Mellon (Tepper)	
- Rice (Jones)	
- UC-Davis	
- Michigan 
- Georgia Tech (Scheller)	
- USC (Marshall)	
- Dartmouth (Tuck)	
- Washington (Foster)	
- Minnesota (Carlson)	
- Indiana (Kelley)	
- Texas (McCombs)	
- UNC (Kenan-Flagler)	
- Rutgers	
- Notre Dame (Mendoza)	
- Wisconsin 
- UC-Irvine (Merage)	
- Boston (Questrom)	
- Georgetown (McDonough)	
- Ohio State (Fisher)	
- Penn State (Smeal)	
- Rochester (Simon)	
- Purdue (Krannert)	
- Vanderbilt (Owen)	
- Georgia (Terry)	
- Washington (Olin)	
- Texas-Dallas (Jindal)	
- Arizona State (Carey)	
- Texas A&M (Mays)	
- Maryland (Smith)	
- Michigan State (Broad)
- Pittsburgh (Katz)	
- Southern Methodist (Cox)	
- Illinois	307 (Q153, V154)	
- Boston College (Carroll)	

**Canada Business Schools that accepts GRE Score**
- University of Western Ontario – Ivey
- HEC Montreal
- University of British Columbia – Sauder
- York University – Schulich
- University of Toronto: Rotman

**UK Business Schools that accepts GRE Score**
- London Business School
- University of Cambridge – Judge
- Oxford University – Said
- University of Manchester
- Cranfield University

**European Business Schools that accepts GRE Score**
- HEC Paris, France
- INSEAD, France
- IMD, Switzerland
- University of St. Gallen, Switzerland
- IESE Business School, Spain
- Instituto de Empresa (IE), Spain
- ESADE, Spain
- University College Dublin – Smurfit, Ireland
- Erasmus University Rotterdam School of Business, Netherland

18) Which Business Schools Accept GRE Scores?

As a graduate student applying to a university abroad, the application procedure can bring a lot of stress.

For students who need to submit their GRE scores to prospective universities, the test is perhaps one of the biggest causes of stress.

This doesn’t have to be the case, if you’ve allotted enough time to prepare for the exam.

Performing well on your GRE test could give you the much needed competitive edge in earning you a spot at a great university.

While the hard work needs to come from you, here is some useful information to get you started.

You're planning on giving the GRE, but you don't know where to start? Fear not, we've curated a blog that will help you understand the whole test.

GRE Exam Dates, Centers, Tips to Score 310+

The GRE measures your verbal reasoning, quantitative reasoning, critical thinking, and analytical writing skills. The GRE test has three sections: GRE Quantitative, also called Quant), GRE Verbal, GRE Analytical Writing Analysis, also called AWA, GRE test score ranges from 260–340, with 0–6 rating for the Analytical Writing section.

What is GRE Syllabus?

You will receive separate Verbal and Quantitative scores. These score are reported on a scale of 130 to 170, with one point increments.AWA section is listed separately, and is scored on a scale of 0 to 6, with half–point increments.

How is the GRE exam scored?

The GRE Subject Tests test your knowledge of a particular subject like chemistry or biology. Very few schools require you to submit GRE Subject test score and, that too, when you are applying for a different major.

The computer-delivered test lasts for 3 hours and 45 minutes. You will be allotted specific time slots to complete each section.

How long is the GRE general test?

ETS official GRE Guide (including CD)- This is the official guide by ETS and will help you tremendously in building your approach to the exam, Kaplan GRE Practice Tests- This is the official guide by ETS and will help you tremendously in building your approach to the exam, Mangoosh Online GRE prep- You can use Magoosh’s GRE prep whenever you like, following your own schedule. This flexibility is especially beneficial, if you are a working professional and don’t have much time to prepare for GRE

Ahmedabad, Allahabad, Bangalore, Chennai, Cochin, Coimbatore, Dehradun, Gandhinagar, Gurgaon, Gwalior, Hyderabad, Indore, Kolkata, Mumbai, Nashik, New Delhi, Nizamabad, Patna, Pune, Trivandrum, Vadodara, Vijawada

What are GRE Centers in India?

The GRE general test comprises 5 sections, of which, one section is for analytical writing, two sections for verbal reasoning and two sections for quantitative reasoning. The analytical writing section involves analyzing and writing about an issue as well as an argument.

 What is the structure of the GRE general test?

This section basically tests your comfort level in terms of understanding text and grammar. It tests your ability to analyse and evaluate information, and distinguish between concepts and words.

What is the verbal reasoning section all about?

This section basically assesses your ability to understand quantitative information and apply your mathematical skills and the concepts of arithmetic, geometry, algebra and data interpretation to solve problems.

 What is the quantitative reasoning section all about?

This section measures your ability to critically analyse an argument as well as in issue.

What is the analytical writing section all about?

1. abash - humiliate, embarrass
2. abdicate - relinquish power or position
3. aberrant - abnormal
4. abet - aid, encourage (typically of crime)
5. abeyance - postponement
6. aboriginal - indigenous
7. abridge - shorten
8. abstemious - moderate
9. acclimate - accustom oneself to a climate
10. accost - to approach and speak to someone
11. acquiesce - agree passively
12. acumen - insight
13. adamant - insistent
14. admonish - warn gently
15. adulterate - contaminate, corrupt
16. adversity - hardship
17. aegis - that which protects
18. aesthetic - pleasing to the senses, beautiful
19. affable - friendly
20. affinity - fondness
21. aggregate - total, collect
22. aghast - horrified
23. alacrity - swiftness
24. alienate - estrange, antagonize
25. alleviate - lessen, assuage
26. altruism - benevolence, generosity
27. amalgamation - mixture
28. ambiguous - unclear
29. ambivalence - conflicting emotions
30. amenable - agreeable
31. amorphous - shapeless
32. anachronistic - out of historical order
33. analogous - similar
34. anarchy - absence of government
35. anathema - curse
36. animus - hate
37. anomalous - abnormal
38. antipathy - repulsion, hatred
39. antipodal - exactly opposite
40. antiquated - outdated, obsolete
41. apathy - indifference
42. appease - pacify
43. approbation - approval
44. artless - naive, simple
45. ascetic - self-denying
46. assiduous - hard-working
47. assimilate - absorb
48. audacity - boldness
49. auspicious - favorable
50. austere - harsh, Spartan
51. autonomous - self-governing
52. avarice - greed
53. axiom - self-evident truth
54. banal - trite
55. belie - misrepresent
56. belittle - disparage
57. bellicose - warlike
58. benefactor - patron
59. boisterous - noisy
60. boor - vulgar person
61. bourgeois - middle class
62. bucolic - rustic
63. buttress - support
64. cachet - prestige
65. cacophony - dissonance, harsh noise
66. callow - inexperienced
67. canon - rule
68. capacious - spacious
69. capitulate - surrender
70. castigate - criticize
71. cathartic - purgative, purifying
72. catholic universal, worldly
73. caustic - scathing (of speech)
74. censure - condemn
75. chagrin - embarrassment
76. charlatan - quack
77. chary - cautious
78. coagulate - thicken
79. coda - concluding passage
80. cogent - well-put, convincing
81. collusion - conspiracy
82. commensurate - proportionate
83. commiserate - empathize
84. compensatory - redeeming
85. compliant - submissive
86. conciliatory - reconciling
87. condone - overlook wrong doing
88. conducive - helping
89. connoisseur - an expert, gourmet
90. consensus - general agreement
91. contentious - argumentative
92. conundrum - puzzle, enigma
93. convoluted - twisted, complicated
94. covenant - agreement, pact
95. covert - secret
96. credence - belief
97. credulous - believing
98. cynical - scornful of the motives of others
99. dauntless - courageous
100. dearth - scarcity
101. defamation - (noun) - slander
102. deference - courteously yielding to another
103. deleterious - harmful
104. delineate - draw a line around, describe
105. demur - take exception
106. denigrate - defame
107. deprecate - belittle
108. desiccate - dehydrate
109. despot - tyrant
110. destitute - poor
111. desultory - without direction in life
112. deterrent - hindrance
113. devoid - empty
114. devout - pious
115. diatribe - long denunciation
116. dichotomy - a division into two parts
117. didactic - instructional
118. diffident - shy
119. digress - ramble
120. disabuse - correct a misconception
121. discerning - observant
122. discord - lack of harmony
123. discrete - separate
124. discretion - prudence
125. disingenuous - deceptive
126. disparate - various
127. disseminate - distribute
128. dissent - disagree
129. dissolution - disintegration
130. dissonance - discord
131. distend - swell
132. divest - strip, deprive
133. divulge - disclose
134. dogmatic - certain, unchanging in opinion
135. dormant - asleep
136. eclectic - from many sources
137. efficacy - effectiveness
138. effigy - likeness, mannequin
139. effloresce - to bloom
140. effrontery - insolence
141. elicit - provoke
142. eloquent - well-spoken
143. emancipate - liberate
144. embellish - exaggerate
145. endemic - peculiar to a particular region
146. enervate - weaken
147. engender - generate
148. ennui - boredom
149. enumerate - count
150. esoteric - known by only a few
151. esthetic - artistic
152. euphemism - genteel expression
153. euphoria - elation
154. evanescent - fleeting, very brief
155. exacerbate - worsen
156. exasperate - irritate
157. exhibitionist - one who draws attention to himself
158. exonerate - free from blame
159. expedite - hasten
160. extemporize - improvise
161. extol - praise highly
162. facetious - joking, sarcastic
163. facilitate - make easier
164. fallacy - false belief
165. fathom - understand
166. fervor - intensity
167. fickle - always changing one’s mind
168. filibuster - long speech
169. fledgling - just beginning, struggling
170. flout - to show disregard for the law or rules
171. foment - instigate
172. forsake - abandon
173. fortuitous - lucky
174. foster - encourage
175. frugal - thrifty
176. fulminate - denounce, menace
177. furtive - stealthy
178. gainsay - contradict
179. germane - relevant
180. glib - insincere manner
181. gratuitous - unwarranted, uncalled for
182. gregarious - sociable
183. halcyon - serene
184. hamper - obstruct
185. harangue - tirade
186. harry - harass
187. hedonism - excessive pursuit of pleasure in life
188. hegemony - authority, domination
189. histrionic - overly dramatic
190. homogeneous - uniform
191. hyperbole - exaggeration
192. hypocritical - deceiving, two-faced
193. iconoclast one who rails against sacred institutions
194. idiosyncrasy - peculiarity
195. imminent - about to happen
196. impecunious - indigent
197. imperative - vital, pressing
198. imperturbable - calm
199. impervious - impenetrable
200. impetuous - impulsive
201. implicit - implied
202. impolitic - unwise
203. impulsive - to act suddenly
204. impunity - exemption from harm
205. inadvertent - unintentional
206. incendiary - inflammatory
207. incipient - beginning
208. incontrovertible - indisputable
209. incorrigible - unreformable
210. indifferent - unconcerned
211. indigent - poor
212. indolent - lazy
213. indomitable - invincible
214. ineffable - inexpressible
215. inert - inactive
216. inherent - innate, inborn
217. inhibit - restrain
218. inimical - adverse, hostile
219. insatiable - gluttonous
220. insidious - treacherous
221. insipid - flat, dull
222. insufferable - unbearable
223. insular - narrow-minded
224. intangible - not perceptible by touch
225. internecine - mutually destructive
226. intractable - unmanageable
227. intrepid - fearless
228. inundate - flood
229. inure - accustom, habituate, harden
230. invective - verbal insult
231. inveigle - lure
232. irascible - irritable
233. irresolute - hesitant, uncertain
234. itinerary - route
235. judicious - prudent
236. laconic - brief, terse
237. lassitude - lethargy
238. laudatory - commendable
239. levity - frivolity
240. lucid - clearly understood
241. lurid - ghastly
242. Machiavellian - politically crafty, cunning
243. magnanimous - generous, kindhearted
244. magnate - a powerful, successful person
245. malevolence - bad intent, malice
246. malinger - shirk
247. malleable - moldable, tractable
248. misanthrope - hater of mankind
249. miscreant - evildoer
250. mitigate - lessen the severity
251. mundane - ordinary
252. nadir - lowest point
253. narcissism - self-love
254. nascent - incipient
255. neologism - newly coined expression
256. nonplus - confound
257. noxious - toxic
258. obfuscate - bewilder, muddle
259. obtuse - stupid
260. obviate - make unnecessary
261. odious - despicable
262. officious - forward, obtrusive
263. omnipotent - all-powerful
264. onerous - burdensome
265. opprobrium - disgrace
266. oscillate - waver
267. paean - a song of praise
268. paradigm - a model
269. paragon - standard of excellence
270. parody - imitation, ridicule
271. parsimonious - stingy
272. paucity - scarcity
273. pedagogical - pertaining to teaching
274. pedantic - bookish
275. penchant - inclination
276. penury - poverty
277. pernicious - destructive
278. perpetuity - eternity
279. perspicacious - keen
280. pervade - permeate
281. philanthropic - charitable
282. phlegmatic - sluggish
283. piety - devoutness
284. pious - devout, holy
285. piquant - tart-tasting, spicy
286. pithy - concise
287. platitude - trite remark
288. platonic - nonsexual
289. plethora - overabundance
290. polemic - a controversy
291. posthumous - after death
292. pragmatic - practical
293. precarious - dangerous, risky
294. precipitate - cause
295. precursor - forerunner
296. preponderance predominance
297. presumptuous - assuming
298. pretentious - affected, inflated
299. pretext - excuse
300. prevaricate - lie
301. probity - integrity
302. problematic - uncertain
303. prodigal - wasteful
304. prodigious - marvelous, enormous
305. prodigy - a person with extraordinary ability or talent
306. profligate - licentious, prodigal
307. profound - deep, knowledgeable
308. profusion - overabundance
309. prolific - fruitful, productive
310. propensity - inclination
311. proportionate - commensurate
312. propriety - decorum
313. prosaic - uninspired, flat
314. proscribe - prohibit
315. protuberance - bulge
316. pundit - politically astute person
317. pungent - sharp smell or taste
318. qualms - misgivings
319. quash - put down, suppress
320. querulous - complaining
321. quixotic - impractical, romantic
322. raconteur - story teller
323. recalcitrant - stubborn
324. recant - retract
325. redoubtable - formidable, steadfast
326. refractory - obstinate
327. relegate - assign to an inferior position
328. renege - break a promise
329. renounce - disown
330. reprehensible - blameworthy
331. reproach - blame
332. reprobate - miscreant
333. repudiate - disavow
334. requisite - necessary
335. rescind - revoke
336. resolute - determined
337. reticent - reserved
338. retribution - reprisal
339. reverent - respectful
340. rhapsody - ecstasy
341. rhetoric - elocution, grandiloquence
342. sanctimonious - self-righteous
343. sanction - approval
344. sanguinary - gory, murderous
345. satiate - satisfy fully
346. satire - ridicule
347. schism - rift
348. secular - worldly, nonreligious
349. sedulous - diligent
350. severance - division
351. skeptical - doubtful
352. solicitous - considerate, concerned
353. solvent - financially sound
354. sophistry - specious reasoning
355. specious - false but plausible
356. spurious - false, counterfeit
357. squander - waste
358. stolid - impassive
359. stupefy - deaden, dumfound
360. stymie - hinder, thwart
361. sullen - sulky, sour
362. supercilious - arrogant
363. superfluous - overabundant
364. surfeit - overabundance
365. synthesis - combination
366. tacit - understood without being spoken
367. temerity - boldness
368. tenuous - thin, insubstantial
369. terse - concise
370. torpid - lethargic, inactive
371. tractable - docile, manageable
372. transient - fleeting, temporary
373. trenchant - incisive, penetrating
374. truculent - fierce, savage
375. ubiquitous - omnipresent, pervasive
376. ulterior - hidden, covert
377. untenable - cannot be achieved
378. untoward - perverse
379. urbane - refined, worldly
380. vacillate - waver
381. venerable - revered
382. veracity - truthfulness
383. verbose - wordy
384. vernacular - common speech
385. vex - annoy
386. viable - capable of surviving
387. vilify - defame
388. virulent - deadly, poisonous
389. vitriolic - scathing
390. vituperative - abusive
391. vivacious - lively
392. volatile - unstable
393. voluminous - bulky, extensive
394. voracious - hungry
395. xenophobia - fear of foreigners
396. zealot - fanatic

Word list

The GRE tests covers a surprisingly limited number of words. In the following lists, you will find words that occur frequently on the GRE. Granted, memorizing a list of words is rather dry, but it is probably the most effective way to improve your performance on the verbal section.

As you read through the lists, mark any words that you do not know with a check mark. Then, when you read through the list again, mark any that you do not remember with two checks. Continue in this manner until you have learned the words.

The first list, The Ubiquitous 400, contains words that have appeared frequently on the GRE. Over the years, our second list, Vocabulary 4000, has been an invaluable tool for students who have both the time and the determination to wade through it. It’s chock-full of words that are prime candidates for the GRE.

The GRE tests covers a surprisingly limited number of words. In the following blog, you will find words that occur frequently on the GRE.

GRE Verbal – The Ubiquitous 400 Words

The GRE tests covers a surprisingly limited number of words. In the following lists, you will find words that occur frequently on the GRE. Granted, memorizing a list of words is rather dry, but it is probably the most effective way to improve your performance on the verbal section. As you read through the lists, mark any words that you do not know with a check mark. Then, when you read through the list again, mark any that you do not remember with two checks. Continue in this manner until you have learned the words. The first list, The Ubiquitous 400, contains words that have appeared frequently on the GRE. Over the years, our second list, Vocabulary 4000, has been an invaluable tool for students who have both the time and the determination to wade through it. It’s chock-full of words that are prime candidates for the GRE.

How many GRE vocabulary words are there?

Why do universities require students to write the GRE test?

The GRE general test comprises 5 sections, of which, one section is for analytical writing, two sections for verbal reasoning and two sections for quantitative reasoning. The analytical writing section involves analyzing and writing about an issue as well as an argument. In the computer-delivered test, there is an additional section, which contains questions pertaining to either verbal or quantitative reasoning. This section is experimental in nature and is neither timed nor scored.

What is the structure of the GRE general test?

The length of the GRE general test varies depending on whether you have opted for the paper-delivered test or the computer-delivered test. The computer-delivered test lasts for 3 hours and 45 minutes. You will be allotted specific time slots to complete each section. In the analytical writing section, you will be given 30 minutes to analyze and write about an issue and 30 minutes to analyze an argument and write about it. For the 2 verbal reasoning sections, you will be given 30 minutes to complete each. For the quantitative reasoning sections, you will have 35 minutes to complete each. The remaining time can be used to attempt the experimental section. The paper-delivered test lasts for 3 hours and 30 minutes. As was the case with computer-delivered tests, you will be given 30 minutes each for the two parts of the analytical writing section. However, for the verbal reasoning section and the quantitative reasoning section, you will be given an additional five minutes for each part. Hence, you will be given 35 minutes each, to answer the two verbal reasoning questions and 40 minutes each, to answer the quantitative reasoning questions.

This section basically tests your comfort level in terms of understanding text and grammar. It tests your ability to analyse and evaluate information, and distinguish between concepts and words. It also assesses your ability to analyse the relationship between different parts of sentences. Questions in this section are of three types – reading comprehension, text completion and sentence equivalence. Reading comprehension will focus not only on your ability to understand paragraphs, but your ability to hone in on the important points, infer information from the paragraphs that can either be found in the body or those that aren’t written but implied. When you finish reading the passage, you should have figured out the author’s position in the piece as well as his or her opinion on the topic. These passages can be drawn from a vast field of subjects that range from the humanities to the sciences to business topics. In terms of text completion, there will be incomplete sentences and you will need to fill in the necessary words according to the context. For sentence equivalence, you will be required to fill in the blanks with the most appropriate option from the six choices provided to you. In addition to figuring out which word best suits the context, you will also have to select the two top options among all the choices provided.

 

This section basically assesses your ability to understand quantitative information and apply your mathematical skills and the concepts of arithmetic, geometry, algebra and data interpretation to solve problems. As was the case with verbal reasoning, quantitative reasoning has different types of questions. Two of these are multiple choice questions – multiple choice questions with more than one correct answer and multiple choice questions with only one correct answer. Some multiple choice questions will test your quantitative comparison skills. You will also have to work on computational problems, where you enter a numeric answer after solving the problem. If you take the paper-delivered test, you will receive a handheld calculator, and if you opt for the computer-delivered test instead, you will have an on-screen calculator.

 

What is the quantitative reasoning section all about?

This section measures your ability to critically analyse an argument as well as in issue. In addition to your ability to analyse the passage, this section is also designed to test your ability to represent your ideas in a logical and clear manner. If you choose to take the computer-delivered test, you will receive no advantages over a paper-delivered test taker. This is because you will have access to only a basic word processor with no spell-check.

- Verbal reasoning: 130-170 in 1-point increments
- Quantitative reasoning: 130-170 in 1-point increments
- Analytical writing: 0-6 in half-point increments

How is the GRE general test scored?

As a graduate student applying to a university abroad, the application procedure can bring a lot of stress. For students who need to submit their GRE scores to prospective universities, the test is perhaps one of the biggest causes of stress. This doesn’t have to be the case, if you’ve allotted enough time to prepare for the exam. Performing well on your GRE test could give you the much needed competitive edge in earning you a spot at a great university. While the hard work needs to come from you, here is some useful information to get you started.




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Scores on the GRE can help you secure a spot at your dream university. In our blog, we answer all your questions about the GRE.

GRE Test Pattern and Preparation

The length of the GRE general test varies depending on whether you have opted for the paper-delivered test or the computer-delivered test. The computer-delivered test lasts for 3 hours and 45 minutes. You will be allotted specific time slots to complete each section.

This section basically tests your comfort level in terms of understanding text and grammar. It tests your ability to analyse and evaluate information, and distinguish between concepts and words. It also assesses your ability to analyse the relationship between different parts of sentences. Questions in this section are of three types – reading comprehension, text completion and sentence equivalence. 

This section basically assesses your ability to understand quantitative information and apply your mathematical skills and the concepts of arithmetic, geometry, algebra and data interpretation to solve problems. As was the case with verbal reasoning, quantitative reasoning has different types of questions. Two of these are multiple choice questions – multiple choice questions with more than one correct answer and multiple choice questions with only one correct answer.

This section measures your ability to critically analyse an argument as well as in issue. In addition to your ability to analyse the passage, this section is also designed to test your ability to represent your ideas in a logical and clear manner.

In the United States the per capita costs of schooling have risen almost as fast as the cost of medical treatment. But increased treatment by both doctors and teachers has shown steadily declining results. Medical expenses concentrated on those above forty-five have doubled several times over a period of forty years with a resulting 3 percent increase in the life expectancy of men. The increase in educational expenditures has produced even stranger results; otherwise President Nixon could not have been moved this spring to promise that every child shall soon have the “Right to Read” before leaving school.

In the United States it would take eighty billion dollars per year to provide what educators regard as equal treatment for all in grammar and high school. This is well over twice the $36 billion now being spent. Independent cost projections prepared at HEW and at the University of Florida indicate that by 1974 the comparable figures will be $107 billion as against the $45 billion now projected, and these figures wholly omit the enormous costs of what is called “higher education,” for which demand is growing even faster. The United States, which spent nearly eighty billion dollars in 1969 for “defense,” including its deployment in Vietnam, is obviously too poor to provide equal schooling. The President’s committee for the study of school finance should ask not how to support or how to trim such increasing costs, but how they can be avoided.

Equal obligatory schooling must be recognized as at least economically unfeasible. In Latin America the amount of public money spent on each graduate student is between 350 and 1,500 times the amount spent on the median citizen (that is, the citizen who holds the middle ground between the poorest and the richest). In the United States the discrepancy is smaller, but the discrimination is keener. The richest parents, some 10 percent, can afford private education for their children and help them to benefit from foundation grants. But in addition they obtain ten times the per capita amount of public funds if this is compared with the per capita expenditure made on the children of the 10 percent who are poorest. The principal reasons for this are that rich children stay longer in school, that a year in a university is disproportionately more expensive than a year in high school, and that most private universities depend—at least indirectly—on tax- derived finances.

Obligatory schooling inevitably polarizes a society; it also grades the nations of the world according to an international caste system. Countries are rated like castes whose educational dignity is determined by the average years of schooling of its citizens, a rating which is closely related to per capita gross national product, and much more painful.

1. Which one of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage? 
(A) The educational shortcomings of the United States, in contrast to those of Latin America, are merely the result of poor allocation of available resources. 
(B) Both education and medical care are severely underfunded. 
(C) Defense spending is sapping funds which would be better spent in education. 
(D) Obligatory schooling must be scrapped if the goal of educational equality is to be realized. 
(E) Obligatory education does not and cannot provide equal education.

2. Consider each of the three choices and select all that apply. 
The author most likely would agree with which one of the following solutions to the problems presented by obligatory education? 
(A) Education should not be obligatory at all. 
(B) Education should not be obligatory for those who cannot afford it. 
(C) More money should be diverted to education for the poorest. 

3. According to the passage, education is like health care in all of the following ways EXCEPT: 
(A) It has reached a point of diminishing returns, increased spending no longer results in significant improvement. 
(B) It has an inappropriate “more is better” philosophy. 
(C) It is unfairly distributed between rich and poor. 
(D) The amount of money being spent on older students is increasing. 
(E) Its cost has increased nearly as fast.

4. Why does the author consider the results from increased educational expenditures to be “even stranger” than those from increased medical expenditures? 
(A) The aging of the population should have had an impact only on medical care, not on education. 
(B) The “Right to Read” should be a bare minimum, not a Presidential ideal. 
(C) Educational spending has shown even poorer results than spending on health care, despite greater increases. 
(D) Education has become even more discriminatory than health care. 
(E) It inevitably polarizes society. 

5. Which one of the following most accurately characterizes the author’s attitude with respect to obligatory schooling? 
(A) qualified admiration 
(B) critical 
(C) neutral 
(D) ambivalent 
(E) resentful 

6. The highlighted portions of the passage imply that 
(A) equal education is possible in the United States but not in Latin America. 
(B) equal education for all at the graduate level is an unrealistic ideal. 
(C) educational spending is more efficient in the United States. 
(D) higher education is more expensive than lower education both in Latin America and in the United States, but more so in Latin America. 
(E) underfunding of lower education is a worldwide problem.

RC #1

The premise with which the multiculturalists begin is unexceptional: that it is important to recognize and to celebrate the wide range of cultures that exist in the United States. In what sounds like a reflection of traditional American pluralism, the multiculturalists argue that we must recognize difference, that difference is legitimate; in its kindlier versions, multiculturalism represents the discovery on the part of minority groups that they can play a part in molding the larger culture even as they are molded by it. And on the campus multiculturalism, defined more locally as the need to recognize cultural variations among students, has tried with some success to talk about how a racially and ethnically diverse student body can enrich everyone’s education.

Phillip Green, a political scientist at Smith and a thoughtful proponent of multiculturalism, notes that for a significant portion of the students the politics of identity is all-consuming. Students he says “are unhappy with the thin gruel of rationalism. They require a therapeutic curriculum to overcome not straightforward racism but ignorant stereotyping.”

But multiculturalism’s hard-liners, who seem to make up the majority of the movement, damn as racism any attempt to draw the myriad of American groups into a common American culture. For these multiculturalists, differences are absolute, irreducible, intractable—occasions not for understanding but for separation. The multiculturalist, it turns out, is not especially interested in the great American hyphen, in the syncretistic (and therefore naturally tolerant) identities that allow Americans to belong to more than a single culture, to be both particularists and universalists.

The time-honored American mixture of assimilation and traditional allegiance is denounced as a danger to racial and gender authenticity. This is an extraordinary reversal of the traditional liberal commitment to a “truth” that transcends parochialisms. In the new race/class/gender formation, universality is replaced by, among other things, feminist science Nubian numerals (as part of an Afro- centric science), and what Marilyn Frankenstein of the University of Massachusetts-Boston describes as “ethno-mathematics,” in which the cultural basis of counting comes to the fore.

The multiculturalists insist on seeing all perspectives as tainted by the perceiver’s particular point of view. Impartial knowledge, they argue, is not possible, because ideas are simply the expression of individual identity, or of the unspoken but inescapable assumptions that are inscribed in a culture or a language. The problem, however, with this warmed-over Nietzscheanism is that it threatens to leave no ground for anybody to stand on. So the multi-culturalists make a leap, necessary for their own intellectual survival, and proceed to argue that there are some categories, such as race and gender, that do in fact embody an unmistakable knowledge of oppression. Victims are at least epistemologically lucky. Objectivity is a mask for oppression. And so an appalled former 1960s radical complained to me that self- proclaimed witches were teaching classes on witchcraft. “They’re not teaching students how to think,” she said, “they’re telling them what to believe.”

1. Which one of the following ideas would a multiculturalist NOT believe? 
(A) That we should recognize and celebrate the differences among the many cultures in the United States. 
(B) That we can never know the “truth” because “truth” is always shaped by one’s culture. 
(C) That “difference” is more important than “sameness.” 
(D) That a school curriculum should be constructed to compensate for institutionalized racism. 
(E) That different cultures should work to assimilate themselves into the mainstream culture so that eventually there will be no excuse for racism. 

2. According to a hard-line multiculturalist, which one of the following groups is most likely to know the “truth” about political reality? 
(A) Educated people who have learned how to see reality from many different perspectives. 
(B) A minority group that has suffered oppression at the hands of the majority. 
(C) High government officials who have privileged access to secret information. 
(D) Minorities who through their education have risen above the socioeconomic position occupied by most members of their ethnic group. 
(E) Political scientists who have thoroughly studied the problem. 

3. The author states that in a “kindlier version” of multiculturalism, minorities discover “that they can play a part in molding the larger culture even as they are molded by it.” If no new ethnic groups were incorporated into the American culture for many centuries to come, which one of the following would be the most probable outcome of this “kindlier version”? 
(A) At some point in the future, there would be only one culture with no observable ethnic differences. 
(B) Eventually the dominant culture would overwhelm the minority cultures, who would then lose their ethnic identities. 
(C) The multiplicity of ethnic groups would remain but the characteristics of the different ethnic groups would change. 
(D) The smaller ethnic groups would remain, and they would retain their ethnic heritage. 
(E) The minority cultures would eventually overwhelm the dominant culture, which would then lose its identity. 

4. The author speaks about the “politics of identity” that Phillip Green, a political scientist at Smith, notes is all-consuming for many of the students. Considering the subject of the passage, which one of the following best describes what the author means by “the politics of identity”? 
(A) The attempt to discover individual identities through political action 
(B) The political agenda that aspires to create a new pride of identity for Americans 
(C) The current obsession for therapy groups that help individuals discover their inner selves 
(D) The trend among minority students to discover their identities in their ethnic groups rather than in their individuality 
(E) The increased political activism of minorities on college campuses 

5. Which one of the following best describes the attitude of the writer toward the multicultural movement? 
(A) Tolerant. It may have some faults, but it is well-meaning overall. 
(B) Critical. A formerly admirable movement has been taken over by radical intellectuals. 
(C) Disinterested. He seems to be presenting an objective report. 
(D) Enthusiastic. The author embraces the multiculturalist movement and is trying to present it in a favorable light. 
(E) Ambivalent. Like a moth to a flame he is simultaneously attracted and repulsed by the movement. 

6. “Multiculturalist relativism” is the notion that there is no such thing as impartial or objective knowledge. The author seems to be grounding his criticism of this notion on 
(A) the clear evidence that science has indeed discovered “truths” that have been independent of both language and culture. 
(B) the conclusion that relativism leaves one with no clear notions of any one thing that is true. 
(C) the absurdity of claiming that knowledge of oppression is more valid than knowledge of scientific facts. 
(D) the agreement among peoples of all cultures as to certain undeniable truths—e.g., when the sky is clear, day is warmer than night. 
(E) the fact that “truth” is not finitely definable and therefore that any discussion of impartial or objective truth is moot.

RC #2

According to usage and conventions which are at last being questioned but have by no means been overcome, the social presence of a woman is different in kind from that of a man. A man’s presence is dependent upon the promise of power which he embodies. If the promise is large and credible his presence is striking. If it is small or incredible, he is found to have little presence. The promised power may be moral, physical, temperamental, economic, social, sexual—but its object is always exterior to the man. A man’s presence suggests what he is capable of doing to you or for you. His presence may be fabricated, in the sense that he pretends to be capable of what he is not. But the pretense is always toward a power which he exercises on others.

By contrast, a woman’s presence expresses her own attitude to herself, and defines what can and cannot be done to her. Her presence is manifest in her gestures, voices, opinions, expressions, clothes, chosen surroundings, taste—indeed there is nothing she can do which does not contribute to her presence. Presence for a woman is so intrinsic to her person that men tend to think of it as an almost physical emanation, a kind of heat or smell or aura.

To be born a woman has been to be born, within an allotted and confined space, into the keeping of men. The social presence of women has developed as a result of their ingenuity in living under such tutelage within such a limited space. But this has been at the cost of a woman’s self being split into two. A woman must continually watch herself. Whilst she is walking across a room or whilst she is weeping at the death of her father, she can scarcely avoid envisaging herself walking or weeping. From earliest childhood she has been taught and persuaded to survey herself continually.

And so she comes to consider the surveyor and the surveyed within her as the two constituent yet always distinct elements of her identity as a woman.

She has to survey everything she is and everything she does because how she appears to others, and ultimately how she appears to men, is of crucial importance for what is normally thought of as the success of her life. Her own sense of being in herself is supplanted by a sense of being appreciated as herself by another. Men survey women before treating them. Consequently how a woman appears to a man can determine how she will be treated. To acquire some control over this process, women must contain it and internalize it. That part of a woman’s self which is the surveyor treats the part which is the surveyed so as to demonstrate to others how her whole self would like to be treated. And this exemplary treatment of herself by herself constitutes her presence. Every woman’s presence regulates what is and is not “permissible” within her presence. Every one of her actions—whatever its direct purpose or motivation—is also read as an indication of how she would like to be treated. If a woman throws a glass on the floor, this is an example of how she treats her own emotion of anger and so of how she would wish to be treated by others. If a man does the same, his action is only read as an expression of his anger. If a woman makes a good joke this is an example of how she treats the joker in herself and accordingly of how she as joker-woman would like to be treated by others. Only a man can make a good joke for its own sake.

1. According to “usage and conventions,” appearance is NECESSARILY a part of reality for 
(A) men 
(B) women 
(C) both men and women 
(D) neither men nor women 
(E) men always and women occasionally 

2. In analyzing a woman’s customary “social presence,” the author hopes to 
(A) justify and reinforce it. 
(B) understand and explain it. 
(C) expose and discredit it. 
(D) demonstrate and criticize it. 
(E) sanction and promote it. 

3. It can be inferred from the passage that a woman with a Ph.D. in psychology who gives a lecture to a group of students is probably MOST concerned with 
(A) whether her students learn the material. 
(B) what the males in the audience think of her. 
(C) how she comes off as a speaker in psychology. 
(D) finding a husband. 
(E) whether a man challenges her. 

4. The passage portrays women as 
(A) victims 
(B) liars 
(C) actresses 
(D) politicians 
(E) ignorant 

5. Consider each choice, and select all that apply. 
Which of the following is implied by the passage? 
(A) A man is defined by what he does, whereas a woman is defined by how she appears. 
(B) Men are not image-conscious. 
(C) Good looks are more important to women than to men. 

6. The primary purpose of the passage is to 
(A) compare and contrast woman’s presence and place in society with that of man’s. 
(B) discuss a woman’s presence and place in society and to contrast it with a man’s presence and place. 
(C) illustrate how a woman is oppressed by society. 
(D) explain why men are better than women at telling jokes. 
(E) illustrate how both men and women are hurt by sexism.

RC #3

That placebos can cure everything from dandruff to leprosy is well known. They have a long history of use by witch doctors, faith healers, and even modern physicians, all of whom refuse to admit their efficacy. Modern distribution techniques can bring this most potent of medicines to the aid of everyone, not just those lucky enough to receive placebos in a medical testing program.

Every drug tested would prove effective if special steps were not taken to neutralize the placebo effect, so drug tests give half the patients new medication and half a harmless substitute. These tests prove the value of placebos, because approximately five percent of patients taking them are cured, even though the placebos are made from substances carefully selected to be useless.

Many feel the lucky patients in a drug test get the experimental drug, because the real drug provides them a chance to be cured. (1) Yet analysis shows that patients getting the placebo may be the lucky ones, because they may be cured without any adverse effects the drug may have.

Placebos would cure considerably more patients if the doubts associated with the tests were eliminated. Cures are principally due to the patient’s faith, (2) yet since a patient knows the probability of being given a true drug is about fifty percent, the placebo cure rate would be higher by removing these doubts. This suggests that cure rates in the ten percent range could be expected if patients are given placebos under the guise of a proven cure, even when patients know their problems are incurable.

It may take a while to reach the ten percent level of cure, because any newly established program will not have cultivated the word-of-mouth advertising needed to ensure its success. One person saying “I was told that my problem was beyond medical help, but they cured me,” can direct countless people to the treatment with the required degree of faith. Furthermore, when only terminal illnesses are treated, those not cured tell no one of the failure.

Unfortunately, placebo treatment centers cannot operate as nonprofit businesses. Public health services know that medicine not paid for by patients is often not taken or not effective because the recipient feels the medicine is worth just what it cost him. Therefore, though it is against higher principles, treatment centers must charge high fees for placebo treatments. This sacrifice, however, is a small price to pay for the greater good of the patients.

1. Which one of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage? 
(A) Placebo treatment is a proven tool of modern medicine and its expanded use would benefit society’s health. 
(B) Because modern technology allows for distribution of drugs on a massive scale, the proven efficacy of the placebo is no longer limited to a privileged few. 
(C) The curative power of the placebo is so strong that it should replace proven drugs because the pa tients receiving the placebo will then be cured without risking any adverse side effects. 
(D) The price of placebo treatment must be kept artificially high because patients have little faith in inexpensive treatments. 
(E) Semi-placebos—drugs that contain only a small amount of the usual dosage—are even more effective curatives than either the placebo or the full-strength drug. 

2. Which one of the following is most analogous to the idea presented in the last paragraph? 
(A) Buying a television at a discount house 
(B) Making an additional pledge to charity 
(C) Choosing the most expensive dishwasher in a manufacturer’s line 
(D) Waiting until a book comes out in paperback 
(E) Contributing one dollar to the Presidential Campaign fund on your tax return 

3. According to the passage, when testing a new drug, medical researchers give half of the subjects the test drug and half a placebo because 
(A) proper statistical controls should be observed. 
(B) this method reduces the risk of maiming too many subjects if the drug should prove to be harmful. 
(C) all drugs which are tested would prove to be effective otherwise. 
(D) most drugs would test positively otherwise. 
(E) the cost of dispensing drugs to all the patients is prohibitive. 

4. It can be inferred from the passage that the author might 
(A) believe that the benefits of a placebo treatment program which leads patients to believe they were getting a real drug would outweigh the moral issue of lying. 
(B) support legislation outlawing the use of placebos. 
(C) open up a medical clinic that would treat patients exclusively through placebo methods. 
(D) believe that factors other than faith are responsible for the curative power of the placebo. 
(E) believe that placebo treatment centers should be tax-exempt because they are nonprofit businesses. 

5. Which one of the following best describes the organization of the material presented in the passage? 
(A) A general proposition is stated; then evidence for its support is given. 
(B) Two types of drug treatment—placebo and non-placebo—are compared and contrasted. 
(C) A result is stated, its cause is explained, and an application is suggested. 
(D) A dilemma is presented and a possible solution is offered. 
(E) A series of examples is presented; then a conclusion is drawn from them. 

6. Which one of the following most accurately characterizes the author’s attitude toward placebo treatment? 
(A) reserved advocacy 
(B) feigned objectivity 
(C) summary dismissal 
(D) perplexed by its effectiveness 
(E) zealous promotion

RC #4

Many readers, I suspect, will take the title of this article [Women, Fire, and Dangerous Things] as suggesting that women, fire, and dangerous things have something in common—say, that women are fiery and dangerous. Most feminists I’ve mentioned it to have loved the title for that reason, though some have hated it for the same reason. But the chain of inference—from conjunction to categorization to commonality—is the norm. The inference is based on the common idea of what it means to be in the same category: things are categorized together on the basis of what they have in common. The idea that categories are defined by common properties is not only our everyday folk theory of what a category is, it is also the principle technical theory—one that has been with us for more than two thousand years.

The classical view that categories are based on shared properties is not entirely wrong. We often do categorize things on that basis. But that is only a small part of the story. In recent years it has become clear that categorization is far more complex than that. A new theory of categorization, called prototype theory, has emerged. It shows that human categorization is based on principles that extend far beyond those envisioned in the classical theory. One of our goals is to survey the complexities of the way people really categorize. For example, the title of this book was inspired by the Australian aboriginal language Dyirbal, which has a category, balan, that actually includes women, fire, and dangerous things. It also includes birds that are not dangerous, as well as exceptional animals, such as the platypus, bandicoot, and echidna. This is not simply a matter of categorization by common properties.

Categorization is not a matter to be taken lightly. There is nothing more basic than categorization to our thought, perception, action and speech. Every time we see something as a kind of thing, for example, a tree, we are categorizing. Whenever we reason about kinds of things—chairs, nations, illnesses, emotions, any kind of thing at all—we are employing categories. Whenever we intentionally perform any kind of action, say something as mundane as writing with a pencil, hammering with a hammer, or ironing clothes, we are using categories. The particular action we perform on that occasion is a kind of motor activity, that is, it is in a particular category of motor actions. They are never done in exactly the same way, yet despite the differences in particular movements, they are all movements of a kind, and we know how to make movements of that kind. And any time we either produce or understand any utterance of any reasonable length, we are employing dozens if not hundreds of categories: categories of speech sounds, of words, of phrases and clauses, as well as conceptual categories. Without the ability to categorize, we could not function at all, either in the physical world or in our social and intellectual lives.

1. Consider all three answer choices and select all that apply. 
The author probably chose Women, Fire, and Dangerous Things as the title of the article because 
(A) he thought that since the Dyirbal placed all three items in the same category, women, fire, and dangerous things necessarily had something in common. 
(B) he was hoping to draw attention to the fact that because items h ave been placed in the same category doesn’t mean that they necessarily have anything in common 
(C) he wanted to use the Dyirbal classification system as an example of how primitive classifications are not as functional as contemporary Western classification systems. 

2. Consider all three answer choices and select all that apply. 
According to the author, 
(A) categorizing is a fundamental activity of people. 
(B) whenever a word refers to a kind of thing, it signifies a category. 
(C) one has to be able to categorize in order to function in our culture. 

3. Which one of the following facts would most weaken the significance of the author’s title? 
(A) The discovery that all the birds and animals classified as balan in Dyirbal are female 
(B) The discovery that the male Dyirbal culture considers females to be both fiery and dangerous 
(C) The discovery that all items in the balan category are considered female 
(D) The discovery that neither fire nor women are considered dangerous 
(E) The discovery that other cultures have categories similar to the balan category 

4. If linguistic experts cannot perceive how women, fire, and dangerous things in the category balan have at least one thing in common, it follows that 
(A) there probably is something other than shared properties that led to all items in balan being placed in that category. 
(B) the anthropologists simply weren’t able to perceive what the items had in common. 
(C) the anthropologists might not have been able to see what the items had in common. 
(D) the items do not have anything in common. 
(E) the Australian aboriginal culture is rather mystic. 

5. Which one of the following sentences would best complete the last paragraph of the passage? 
(A) An understanding of how we categorize is central to any understanding of how we think and how we function, and therefore central to an understanding of what makes us human. 
(B) The prototype theory is only the latest in a series of new and improved theories of categorization; undoubtedly even better theories will replace it. 
(C) The prototype theory of categories has not only unified a major branch of linguistics, but it has applications to mathematics and physics as well. 
(D) An understanding of how the prototype theory of categorization evolved from the classical theory is essential to any understanding of how we think and how we function in society. 
(E) To fully understand how modern Australian society functions, we must study how it is influenced by aboriginal culture—most specifically how aborigines organize and classify their surroundings.

RC #5

Global strategies to control infectious disease have historically included the erection of barriers to international travel and immigration. Between 29 and 50 countries are reported to have introduced border restrictions on HIV-positive foreigners, usually those planning an extended stay in the country.

The country with the broadest policy of testing and excluding foreigners is the United States. The U.S. policy has been sharply criticized by national and international organizations as being contrary to public health goals and human-rights principles. The Immigration and Nationality Act requires the Public Health Service to list “dangerous contagious diseases” for which aliens can be excluded from the United States. By 1987 there were seven designated diseases—five of them sexually transmitted and two non-venereal. On June 8, 1987, in response to a Congressional direction in the Helms Amendment, the Public Health Service added HIV infection to the list of dangerous contagious diseases.

A just and efficacious travel and immigration policy would not exclude people because of their serologic status unless they posed a danger to the community through casual transmission. We support well-funded programs to protect the health of travelers infected with HIV through appropriate immunizations and prophylactic treatment and to reduce behaviors that may transmit infection.

We recognize that treating patients infected with HIV who immigrate to the United States will incur costs for the public sector. It is inequitable, however, to use cost as a reason to exclude people infected with HIV, for there are no similar exclusionary policies for those with other costly chronic diseases, such as heart disease or cancer.

Rather than arbitrarily restrict the movement of a subgroup of infected people, we must dedicate ourselves to the principles of justice, scientific cooperation, and a global response to the HIV pandemic.

1. The authors of the passage conclude that 
(A) it is unjust to exclude people based on their serological status without the knowledge that they pose a danger to the public. 
(B) U.S. regulations should require more stringent testing to be implemented at all major border crossings.
(C) it is the responsibility of the public sector to absorb costs incurred by treatment of immigrants infected with HIV. 
(D) the HIV pandemic is largely overstated and that, based on new epidemiological data, screening immigrants is not indicated. 
(E) only the non-venereal diseases active tuberculosis and infectious leprosy should be listed as dangerous and contagious diseases. 

2. It can be inferred from the passage that 
(A) more than 3 million HIV-positive people have sought permanent residence in the United States. 
(B) countries with a low seroprevalence of HIV have a disproportionate and unjustified concern over the spread of AIDS by immigration. 
(C) the United States is more concerned with controlling the number of HIV-positive immigrants than with avoiding criticism from outside its borders. 
(D) current law is meeting the demand for prudent handling of a potentially hazardous international issue. 
(E) actions by countries all over the world to restrict travel are ineffective. 

3. The word “prophylactic” as used in the passage can best be defined as 
(A) medicinal 
(B) protective 
(C) judicious 
(D) costly 
(E) experimental 

4. Before the Helms Amendment in 1987, seven designated diseases were listed as being cause for denying immigration. We can conclude from the passage that 
(A) the authors agree fully with this policy but disagree with adding HIV to the list. 
(B) the authors believe that sexual diseases are appropriate reasons for denying immigration but not non-venereal diseases. 
(C) the authors disagree with the amendment. 
(D) the authors believe that non-venereal diseases are justifiable reasons for exclusion, but not sexually transmitted diseases. 
(E) the authors believe that no diseases should be cause for denying immigration. 

5. In referring to the “costs” incurred by the public, the authors apparently mean 
(A) financial costs. 
(B) costs to the public health. 
(C) costs in manpower. 
(D) costs in international reputation. 
(E) costs in public confidence.

RC #6

Most students arrive at [college] using “discrete, concrete, and absolute categories to understand people, knowledge, and values.” These students live with a dualistic view, seeing “the world in polar terms of we-right-good vs. other-wrong-bad.” These students cannot acknowledge the existence of more than one point of view toward any issue. There is one “right” way. And because these absolutes are assumed by or imposed on the individual from external authority, they cannot be personally substantiated or authenticated by experience. These students are slaves to the generalizations of their authorities. Most students break through the dualistic stage to another equally frustrating stage—multiplicity. Within this stage, students see a variety of ways to deal with any given topic or problem. However, while these students accept multiple points of view, they are unable to evaluate or justify them. To have an opinion is everyone’s right. Every assertion, every point, is valid. In their democracy they are directionless.

The third stage of development finds students living in a world of relativism. Knowledge is relative: right and wrong depend on the context. No longer recognizing the validity of each individual idea or action, relativists examine everything to find its place in an overall framework. In this stage, however, students resist decision making. Suffering the ambivalence of finding several consistent and acceptable alternatives, they are almost overwhelmed by diversity and need means for managing it.

In the final stage students manage diversity through individual commitment. Students do not deny relativism. Rather they assert an identity by forming commitments and assuming responsibility for them. They gather personal experience into a coherent framework, abstract principles to guide their actions, and use these principles to discipline and govern their thoughts and actions.

1. Consider each of the options, and select all that apply. 
It can be inferred from the passage that the author would consider which of the following to be good examples of “dualistic thinking”? 
(A) People who think “there is a right way and a wrong way to do things” 
(B) Teenagers who assume they know more about “the real world” than adults do 
(C) People who back our country “right or wrong” when it goes to war 

2. Students who are “dualistic” thinkers may not be able to support their beliefs convincingly because 
(A) most of their beliefs cannot be supported by arguments. 
(B) they have accepted their “truths” simply because authorities have said these things are “true.” 
(C) they half-believe and half-disbelieve just about everything. 
(D) their teachers almost always think that “dualistic” thinkers are wrong. 
(E) they are enslaved by their authorities. 

3. Which one of the following assertions is supported by the passage? 
(A) Committed thinkers are not very sure of their positions. 
(B) Relativistic thinkers have learned how to make sense out of the world and have chosen their own positions in it. 
(C) Multiplicity thinkers have difficulty understanding the relationships between different points of view. 
(D) Dualistic thinkers have thought out the reasons for taking their positions. 
(E) Dualistic thinkers fear the power of authority. 

4. In paragraph one, the author states that in their “democracy” students in the multiplicity stage are directionless. The writer describes multiplicity students as being in a “democracy” because 
(A) there are so many different kinds of people in a democracy. 
(B) in an “ideal” democracy, all people are considered equal; by extension, so are their opinions. 
(C) Democrats generally do not have a good sense of direction. 
(D) although democracies may grant freedom, they are generally acknowledged to be less efficient than more authoritarian forms of government. 
(E) in a democracy the individual has ultimate authority over himself, not the state. 

5. Which one of the following kinds of thinking is NOT described in the passage? 
(A) People who assume that there is no right or wrong in any issue 
(B) People who make unreasoned commitments and stick by them 
(C) People who believe that right or wrong depends on the situation 
(D) People who commit themselves to a particular point of view after having considered several alternative concepts 
(E) People who think that all behavior can be accounted for by cause and effect relationships 

6. If students were asked to write essays on the different concepts of tragedy as exemplified by Cordelia and Antigone, and they all responded by showing how each character exemplified a traditional definition of tragedy, we could, according to the passage, hypothesize which one of the following about these students? 
(A) The students were locked into the relativist stage. 
(B) The students had not advanced beyond the dualist stage. 
(C) The students had at least achieved the multiplicity stage. 
(D) The students had reached the commitment stage. 
(E) We have no indication of which cognitive stage the students were in. 

7. Which one of the following best describes the organization of the passage? 
(A) Four methods of thought are compared and contrasted. 
(B) It is shown how each of four types of thought evolved from each other. 
(C) Four methods of thought are presented, and each is shown to complement the other. 
(D) The evolution of thought from simplistic and provincial through considered and cosmopolitan is illustrated by four stages. 
(E) The evolution of thought through four stages is presented.

RC #7

A growing taste for shark steaks and shark-fin soup has for the first time in 400 million years put the scourge of the sea at the wrong end of the food chain. Commercial landings of this toothsome fish have doubled every year since 1986, and shark populations are plunging.

Sharks do for gentler fish what lions do for the wildebeest: they check populations by feeding on the weak. Also, sharks apparently do not get cancer and may therefore harbor clues to the nature of that disease. Finally, there is the issue of motherhood. Sharks are viviparous. That is, they bear their young alive and swimming (not sealed in eggs). Shark mothers generally give birth to litters of from eight to twelve pups and bear only one litter every other year.

This is why sharks have one of the lowest fecundity rates in the ocean. The female cod, for example, spawns annually and lays a few million eggs at a time. If three quarters of the cod were fished this year, they could be back in full force in a few years. If humans took that fraction out of the sharks, the population would not recover for 15 years.

So, late this summer, if all goes according to plan, the shark will join the bald eagle and the buffalo on the list of managed species. The federal government will cap the U.S. commercial catch at about half of the 1989 level and limit sportsmen to two sharks per boat. Another provision discourages finning, the harvesting of shark fins alone, by limiting the weight of fins to 7 percent of that of all the carcasses.

Finning got under the skin of environmentalists, and the resulting anger helped to mobilize support for the new regulations. Shark fins contain noodle-like cartilaginous tissues that Chinese chefs have traditionally used to thicken and flavor soup. Over the past few years rising demand in Hong Kong has made the fins as valuable as the rest of the fish.

But can U.S. quotas save shark species that wander the whole Atlantic? The blue shark, for example, migrates into the waters of something like 23 countries. International co-ordination will eventually be necessary, but biologists support U.S. quotas as a first step in mobilizing other nations. Meanwhile, the commercial fishermen are not waiting for the new rules to take effect. “There’s a pre-quota rush on sharks,” Casey says, “and it’s going on as we speak.”

1. According to the passage, shark populations are at greater risk than cod populations because 
(A) sharks are now being eaten more than cod. 
(B) the shark reproduction rate is lower than that of the cod. 
(C) sharks are quickly becoming fewer in number. 
(D) sharks are now as scarce as bald eagles and buffalo. 
(E) sharks are scavengers and therefore more susceptible to disease. 

2. Consider all of the answer choices, and select all that apply. 
According to the passage, a decrease in shark populations 
might cause some fish populations to go unchecked. 
(B) would hamper cancer research. 
(C) to one-quarter the current level would take over a decade to recover from. 

3. If the species Homo logicus was determined to be viviparous and to have extremely low fecundity rates on land, we might expect that 
(A) Homo logicus could overpopulate its niche and should be controlled. 
(B) Homo logicus might be declared an endangered species. 
(C) Homo logicus would pose no danger to other species and would itself be in no danger. 
(D) Homo logicus would soon become extinct. 
(E) None of these events would be expected with certainty. 

4. Which one of the following best describes the author’s attitude toward the efforts to protect shark populations? 
(A) strong advocate 
(B) impartial observer 
(C) opposed 
(D) perplexed 
(E) resigned to their ineffectiveness 

5. Consider all the choices and select all that apply. 
It can be inferred from the passage that 
(A) research efforts on cancer will be hindered if shark populations are threatened. 
(B) U.S. quotas on shark fishing will have limited effectiveness in protecting certain species. 
(C) some practices of Chinese chefs have angered environmentalists. 

6. An irony resulting from the announcement that sharks will be placed on the managed list is 
(A) we will now find out less about cancer, so in effect by saving the sharks, we are hurting ourselves. 
(B) sharks are far more dangerous to other fish than we are to them. 
(C) more chefs are now using the cartilaginous tissues found in shark fins. 
(D) more sharks are being killed now than before the announcement. 
(E) man will now protect a creature that he has been the victim of.

RC #8

“A writer’s job is to tell the truth,” said Hemingway in 1942. “I only know what I have seen,” was a statement which came often to his lips and pen. What Hemingway had personally done, or what he knew unforgettably by having gone through one version of it, was what he was interested in telling about. This is not to say that he refused to invent freely. But he always made it a sacrosanct point to invent in terms of what he actually knew from having been there.

The primary intent of his writing, from first to last, was to seize and project for the reader what he often called “the way it was.” This is a characteristically simple phrase for a concept of extraordinary complexity. At the core of the concept, however, one can invariably discern the operation of three aesthetic instruments: the sense of place, of fact, and of scene.

The first of these, obviously a strong passion with Hemingway, is the sense of place. Few writers have been more place-conscious. Few have so carefully charted out the geographical ground work of their novels while managing to keep background so conspicuously unobtrusive. Few, accordingly, have been able to record more economically and graphically… the way it is when at around six o’clock of a Spanish dawn, you watch the bulls running from the corrals at the Puerta Rochapea through the streets of Pamplona towards the bullring.

“When I woke it was the sound of the rocket exploding that announced the release of the bulls from the corrals at the edge of town. Down below the narrow street was empty. All the balconies were crowded with people. Suddenly a crowd came down the street. They were all running, packed close together. They passed along and up the street toward the bullring and behind them came more men running faster, and then some stragglers who were really running. Behind them was a little bare space, and then the bulls, galloping, tossing their heads up and down. It all went out of sight around the corner. One man fell, rolled to the gutter, and lay quiet. But the bulls went right on and did not notice him. They were all running together.”

This landscape is as morning-fresh as a design in India ink on clean white paper. First is the bare white street, seen from above, quiet and empty. Then one sees the first packed clot of runners. Behind these are the thinner ranks of those who move faster because they are closer to the bulls. Then the almost comic stragglers, who are “really running.” Brilliantly behind these shines the “little bare space,” a desperate margin for error. Then the clot of running bulls—closing the design, except of course for the man in the gutter making himself, like the designer’s initials, as inconspicuous as possible.

1. According to the author, Hemingway’s primary purpose in telling a story was 
(A) to construct a well-told story that the reader would thoroughly enjoy. 
(B) to construct a story that would reflect truths that were not particular to a specific historical period. 
(C) to begin from reality but to allow his imagination to roam from “the way it was” to “the way it might have been.” 
(D) to report faithfully reality as Hemingway had experienced it. 
(E) to go beyond the truth, to “create” reality. 

2. From the author’s comments and the example of the bulls (paragraph 4), what was the most likely reason for which Hemingway took care to include details of place? 
(A) He felt that geography in some way illuminated other, more important events. 
(B) He thought readers generally did not have enough imagination to visualize the scenes for themselves. 
(C) He had no other recourse since he was avoiding the use of other literary sources. 
(D) He thought that landscapes were more important than characters to convey “the way it was.” 
(E) He felt that without background information the readers would be unable to follow the story. 

3. One might infer from the passage that Hemingway preferred which one of the following sources for his novels and short stories? 
(A) Stories that he had heard from friends or chance acquaintances 
(B) Stories that he had read about in newspapers or other secondary sources 
(C) Stories that came to him in periods of meditation or in dreams 
(D) Stories that he had lived rather than read about 
(E) Stories adapted from myths 

4. Consider all of the choices and select all that apply. 
It has been suggested that part of Hemingway’s genius lies in the way in which he removes himself from his stories in order to let readers experience the stories for themselves. Which of the following elements of the passage support this suggestion? 
(A) The comparison of “the designer’s initials” to the man who fell and lay in the gutter (end of the last paragraph) during the running of the bulls 
(B) Hemingway’s stated intent to project for the reader “the way it was” (opening of the second paragraph) 
(C) Hemingway’s ability to invent fascinating tales from his own experience 

5. From the passage, one can assume that which of the following statements would best describe Hemingway’s attitude toward knowledge? 
(A) One can learn about life only by living it fully. 
(B) A wise person will read widely in order to learn about life. 
(C) Knowledge is a powerful tool that should be reserved only for those who know how to use it. 
(D) Experience is a poor teacher. 
(E) One can never truly “know” anything. 

6. The author calls “the way it was” a “characteristically simple phrase for a concept of extraordinary complexity” because 
(A) the phrase reflects Hemingway’s talent for obscuring ordinary events. 
(B) the relationship between simplicity and complexity reflected the relationship between the style and content of Hemingway’s writing. 
(C) Hemingway became increasingly confused about “the way it was” throughout the course of his career. 
(D) Hemingway’s obsession for geographic details progressively overshadowed the dramatic element of his stories. 
(E) it typifies how Hemingway understated complex issues.

RC #9

Imagine that we stand on any ordinary seaside pier, and watch the waves striking against the iron columns of the pier. Large waves pay very little attention to the columns—they divide right and left and re-unite after passing each column. But the short waves find the columns of the pier a much more formidable obstacle. When the short waves impinge on the columns, they are reflected back and spread as new ripples in all directions. To use the technical term, they are “scattered.” The columns hardly affect the long waves at all, but scatter the short ripples.

We have been watching a working model of the way in which sunlight struggles through the earth’s atmosphere. The atmosphere interposes obstacles in the form of molecules of air, tiny droplets of water, and small particles of dust, which are represented by the columns.

The waves of the sea represent the sunlight. We know that sunlight is a blend of lights of many colors—as Nature demonstrates to us when she passes it through the raindrops of a summer shower and produces a rainbow. We also know that light consists of waves, and that the different colors of light are produced by waves of different lengths, red light by long waves and blue light by short waves. The mixture of waves which constitutes sunlight has to struggle through the obstacles it meets in the atmosphere, just as the mixture of waves at the seaside has to struggle past the columns of the pier. And these obstacles treat the light waves much as the columns of the pier treat the sea-waves. The long waves which constitute red light are hardly affected, but the short waves which constitute blue light are scattered in all directions.

Thus, the different constituents of sunlight are treated in different ways as they struggle through the earth’s atmosphere. A wave of blue light may be scattered by a dust particle, and turned out of its course. After a time a second dust particle again turns it out of its course, and so on, until finally it enters our eyes by a path as zigzag as that of a flash of lightning. Consequently, the blue waves of the sunlight enter our eyes from all directions. And that is why the sky looks blue.

1. We know from experience that if we look directly at the sun, we will see red light near the sun. This observation is supported by the passage for which one of the following reasons? 
(A) It seems reasonable to assume that red light would surround the sun because the sun is basically a large fireball. 
(B) It seems reasonable to assume that the other colors of light would either cancel each other or combine to produce red. 
(C) It seems reasonable to assume that red light would not be disturbed by the atmospheric particles and would consequently reach us by a relatively direct path from the sun to our eyes. 
(D) It is not supported by the passage. The author does not say what color of light should be near the sun, and he provides no reasons that would allow us to assume that the light would be red. 
(E) Gazing directly at the sun forces the eye to focus on the longer red waves. 

2. Scientists have observed that shorter wavelength light has more energy than longer wavelength light. From this we can conclude that 
(A) red light will exert more energy when it hits the surface of the earth than will blue light. 
(B) lightning is caused by the collision of blue light with particles in the air. 
(C) red light will travel faster than blue light. 
(D) blue light has more energy than red light. 
(E) blue light has less energy than red light. 

3. A scientist makes new observations and learns that water waves of shorter wavelengths spread in all directions not only because they scatter off piers but also because they interact with previously scattered short water waves. Drawing upon the analogy between water waves and light waves, we might hypothesize which of the following? 
(A) Blue light waves act like ripples that other blue light waves meet and scatter from. 
(B) Red light waves will be scattered by blue light waves like incoming long water waves are scattered by outgoing ripples. 
(C) Red light waves can scatter blue light waves, but blue light waves cannot scatter red. 
(D) The analogy between water and light waves cannot be extended to include the way in which short water waves become ripples and scatter one another. 
(E) The scattering effect of blue light waves is canceled by that of red. 

4. Which one of the following is a reason for assuming that sunlight is constituted of waves of many colors? 
(A) The mixture of waves that make up sunlight has to struggle through a variety of obstacles in the atmosphere. 
(B) When passing through water in the atmosphere, sunlight is sometimes broken down into an array of colors. 
(C) Many different wavelengths of light enter our eyes from all directions. 
(D) The mere fact that light waves can be scattered is a reason for assuming that sunlight is constituted of waves of different colors. 
(E) When passing through dust in the atmosphere, sunlight is sometimes broken down into an array of colors. 

5. From the information presented in the passage, what can we conclude about the color of the sky on a day with a large quantity of dust in the air? 
(A) The sky would be even bluer 
(B) The sky would be redder 
(C) The sky would not change colors 
(D) We do not have enough information to determine a change in color 
(E) The sky would assume a violet hue 

6. Consider all the choices, and select all that apply. 
We all know that when there is a clear sky, the western sky appears red as the sun sets. From the information presented in the passage, this phenomenon would seem to be explained by which of the following? 
(A) Light meets more obstacles when passing parallel to the earth’s surface than when traveling perpendicular. Consequently, even red light is diffused. 
(B) The blue light may not make it through the denser pathway of the evening sky, leaving only the long light waves of red. 
(C) The short red light waves have more energy and are the only waves that can make it through the thick atmosphere of the evening sky. 

7. Which one of the following does the author seem to imply? 
(A) Waves of light and waves of water are identical. 
(B) Waves of light have the same physical shape as waves of water. 
(C) Waves of light and waves of water do not have very much in common. 
(D) Waves of water are only models of waves of light. 
(E) There are colors of light waves just as there are colors of water waves.

RC #10

RC #1 
1. E 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. B 6. B 

RC #2 
1. E 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. B 

RC #3 
1. B 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. C 6. B 

RC #4 
1. A 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. A 

RC #5 
1. B 2. A,B,C 3. C 4. A 5. A 

RC #6 
1. A 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. A 

RC #7 
1. A,C 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. E 6. B 7. E 

RC #8 
1. B 2. A,C 3. E 4. B 5. B 6. D 

RC #9 
1. D 2. A 3. D 4. A,B 5. A 6. B 

RC #10 
1. C 2. D 3. D 4. B 5. D 6. A,B 7. D

Answer

Practice these 10 most difficult GRE Reading Comprehension passages to improve your GRE Verbal score by at least 4 points. Answers included.

Directions: This passage is followed by a group of questions to be answered based on what is stated or implied in the passage. Choose the best answer; the one that most accurately and completely answers the question.

Answer key to all the comprehensions is present at the end of the article.

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10 GRE Verbal Practice Questions – Reading Comprehension

Practice these 10 most difficult GRE Reading Comprehension passages to improve your GRE Verbal score by at least 4 points. Answers included. Directions: This passage is followed by a group of questions to be answered based on what is stated or implied in the passage. Choose the best answer; the one that most accurately and completely answers the question. Answer key to all the comprehensions is present at the end of the article.